Printable · GCSE Foundation · ages 14-16

Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation

Fifteen questions across the probability statements at Foundation tier. Choose the non-calculator filter to rehearse Paper 1, which counts for a third of the marks.

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Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation

Maths · GCSE Foundation · Probability · 15 questions

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1.A game has two independent stages. P(win stage 1) = 0.4, and P(win stage 2) = 0.25. Work out the probability that Ffion wins at least one of the two stages.
(a)0.1
(b)0.55
(c)0.45
(d)0.65
2.Two ordinary fair dice are rolled. Work out the probability that both dice show the same score.
(a)1/3
(b)1/6
(c)1/36
(d)1/2
3.A small pack contains 5 cards, numbered 1 to 5. One card is drawn at random from the pack, and a fair coin is flipped. Every outcome is listed as a pair, such as (3, H). Work out how many equally likely outcomes there are in total.
(a)5
(b)20
(c)10
(d)7
4.A fair coin is flipped and a fair three-sided spinner, labelled X, Y and Z, is spun. Every outcome is listed as a pair, such as (H, X). Work out the probability that the outcome is a head and Z.
(a)1/2
(b)1/6
(c)1/3
(d)1/5
5.An ordinary six-sided dice, numbered 1 to 6, is rolled 30 times and lands on a 6 seven times. Ravi says the theoretical probability of rolling a 6 and the relative frequency of rolling a 6 in this trial are the same number. Is Ravi right?
(a)Yes — relative frequency always equals theory.
(b)Yes — the theoretical probability has now become 7/30.
(c)No — 7/30 is the relative frequency; theory stays 1/6.
(d)Neither can be found — 30 rolls is too few to tell.
6.A bag contains counters that are red, blue or green only. The probability that a counter taken at random is not red is 0.8. The bag contains 25 counters in total. Work out how many of the counters are red.
(a)4
(b)8
(c)20
(d)5
7.The probability that a component is faulty is 1/10. Two components are tested independently. Work out the probability that at least one of the two components is faulty.
(a)1/5
(b)1/10
(c)1/100
(d)19/100
8.On a probability scale from 0 to 1, five descriptions are used: impossible (0), unlikely (between 0 and 0.5), evens (exactly 0.5), likely (between 0.5 and 1) and certain (1). The probability that a particular bus is late is 3/8. Which description best fits this probability?
(a)unlikely
(b)likely
(c)evens
(d)certain
9.Spinner E has 4 equal sections, numbered 1 to 4. Spinner F has 6 equal sections, numbered 1 to 6. Both spinners are spun once. Work out the probability of getting at least one 3.
(a)3/8
(b)1/4
(c)5/12
(d)5/8
10.A card is taken at random from an ordinary pack of 52 playing cards. The probability that the card is a diamond is 1/4. Work out the probability that the card is not a diamond.
(a)1/2
(b)3/4
(c)1/4
(d)3/52
11.A phone network sends automatic text alerts to customers. On average, 1,500 alerts are sent each day, and the probability that a customer replies 'STOP' to an alert is 0.18. Work out how many replies of 'STOP' the network should expect over a 30-day month.
(a)270
(b)8,100
(c)810
(d)5
12.A raffle sells 400 tickets at 50p each. There is one prize of £45. Aisha buys 8 tickets. Work out how much money Aisha should expect to lose from playing, giving your answer in pounds.
(a)£4.00
(b)£0.90
(c)£3.10
(d)£3.89
13.A drawing pin is dropped many times and lands either point up or point down. The relative frequency of landing point up is recorded as the experiment goes on: after 50 drops it is 0.720, after 200 drops it is 0.665, and after 1000 drops it is 0.638. The pin is to be dropped a further 2000 times. Work out the best estimate of the number of times it will land point up.
(a)1276
(b)1330
(c)1440
(d)1348
14.Kwame flips a fair coin three times and writes down what it lands on each time. Work out the probability that it lands on heads all three times.
(a)1/6
(b)1/2
(c)1/4
(d)1/8
15.At a tombola stall, each ticket wins a toy, wins a sweet or wins nothing, and no ticket can win more than one of these. The probability that a ticket wins a toy is 0.15 and the probability that it wins a sweet is 0.4. Work out the probability that a ticket wins neither a toy nor a sweet.
(a)0.55
(b)0.45
(c)0.6
(d)0.85

Answer key

(b) 0.55 — Method: it is easier to find the probability that Ffion wins NEITHER stage, then subtract that from 1. Working: P(lose stage 1) = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6, and P(lose stage 2) = 1 − 0.25 = 0.75. P(neither) = 0.6 × 0.75 = 0.45. P(at least one) = 1 − 0.45 = 0.55. Answer: 0.55. Watch out: adding the two win probabilities, 0.4 + 0.25 = 0.65, treats winning both as impossible and overcounts — that is not how independent probabilities combine. Multiplying the two win probabilities, 0.4 × 0.25 = 0.1, gives the probability of winning BOTH stages, not at least one. And stopping at 0.45, the probability of winning neither stage, forgets the final step of subtracting from 1.
(b) 1/6 — Method: list the ordered pairs where the two scores match, and divide by the 36 equally likely pairs. Working: the matching pairs are (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5) and (6, 6), which is 6 pairs out of 36, cancelling down to 1/6. Answer: 1/6. Watch out: writing down 1/36 finds the probability of one particular double, such as (6, 6), rather than any double at all. Guessing 1/2 treats 'same' and 'different' as equally likely events, when there are only 6 matching pairs against 30 non-matching ones. And writing down 1/3 comes from listing each double twice, once for each order of the two dice, giving 12 pairs out of 36 — but (1, 1) is a single outcome, and swapping the two dice over does not produce a second one.
(c) 10 — There are 5 possible cards and 2 possible coin results, so listing every pair gives 5 × 2 = 10 equally likely outcomes. Choosing 5 comes from listing only the card outcomes and forgetting the coin flip adds a second stage to each one. Choosing 7 comes from adding the two stages instead of combining them, 5 + 2 = 7, rather than pairing every card with every coin result. Choosing 20 comes from counting each coin result twice for every card, 5 × 2 × 2 = 20, effectively pairing every card with the coin twice over.
(b) 1/6 — There are 2 outcomes for the coin and 3 outcomes for the spinner, giving 2 × 3 = 6 equally likely pairs: (H,X), (H,Y), (H,Z), (T,X), (T,Y), (T,Z). Only one of these, (H,Z), matches both conditions, so the probability is 1/6. A candidate who answers 1/3 has listed only the spinner's 3 outcomes and ignored the coin. A candidate who answers 1/2 has considered only the coin and ignored the spinner. A candidate who answers 1/5 has missed one pair when listing the possibility space, treating it as 5 outcomes instead of 6.
(c) No — 7/30 is the relative frequency; theory stays 1/6. — The theoretical probability of rolling a 6 on an ordinary dice is fixed at 1/6, worked out from the number of equally likely outcomes, and does not change however the dice is actually rolled. The relative frequency from this trial is 7/30, found from what happened in these particular 30 rolls. Since 7/30 and 1/6 are different numbers, the correct statement is 'No — 7/30 is the relative frequency; theory stays 1/6.' Assuming the two values must always match because they describe the same event gives 'Yes — relative frequency always equals theory.' Believing that an observed result redefines the theoretical probability gives 'Yes — the theoretical probability has now become 7/30.' Refusing to work out either value at all gives 'Neither can be found — 30 rolls is too few to tell', which ignores that both numbers CAN be calculated from the information given.
(d) 5 — Being red and not being red are exhaustive, so their probabilities sum to 1: the probability of red is 1 − 0.8 = 0.2. The number of red counters is 0.2 × 25 = 5. Using 0.8 directly as the probability of red, without taking the complement, gives 0.8 × 25 = 20 — the number of counters that are NOT red. Sharing the 25 counters equally between the three colours, ignoring the given probability altogether, gives 25 ÷ 3 ≈ 8. Misreading the total as 20 counters instead of 25 gives 0.2 × 20 = 4.
(d) 19/100 — It is easier to first find the probability that NEITHER component is faulty, then subtract from 1. The probability a component is not faulty is 9/10, so the probability neither is faulty is 9/10 × 9/10 = 81/100. So the probability at least one is faulty is 1 − 81/100 = 19/100. Choosing 1/5 comes from adding the two probabilities of a fault instead, 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5, which double-counts the case where both are faulty. Choosing 1/10 comes from giving the probability for just one component being faulty. Choosing 1/100 comes from squaring the probability of a fault directly, 1/10 × 1/10 = 1/100, which is actually the probability that BOTH are faulty, not at least one.
(a) unlikely — 3/8 = 3 ÷ 8 = 0.375, which is between 0 and 0.5, so the probability is best described as unlikely. Rounding 3/8 loosely to 'about a half' without converting it properly leads to evens, which is wrong since 0.375 is noticeably below 0.5. Reading 3/8 as the complement and using 1 − 3/8 = 5/8 = 0.625 instead gives likely, but the question asks about the probability of 3/8 itself, not its complement. Flipping the fraction to 8/3 ≈ 2.67, which is impossible for a probability, and rounding it towards the top of the scale gives certain.
(a) 3/8 — There are 4 × 6 = 24 equally likely outcomes. The outcomes with no 3 at all have Spinner E showing 1, 2 or 4 and Spinner F showing 1, 2, 4, 5 or 6, giving 3 × 5 = 15 outcomes. So the outcomes with at least one 3 are 24 − 15 = 9, and the probability is 9/24 = 3/8. Choosing 5/12 comes from adding the two individual probabilities of a 3, 1/4 + 1/6, which counts the outcome where both spinners show 3 twice over. Choosing 1/4 comes from only counting the case where Spinner E shows 3, and forgetting the outcomes where Spinner F shows 3 instead. Choosing 5/8 comes from working out the probability of getting no 3 at all, 15/24 = 5/8, and giving that as the final answer instead of subtracting it from 1.
(b) 3/4 — Method: a card either is a diamond or is not a diamond, so those two outcomes form an exhaustive set and their probabilities add to 1; subtract the given probability from 1. Working: P(diamond) = 1/4, so P(not a diamond) = 1 − 1/4; writing 1 as 4/4 gives 4/4 − 1/4. Answer: 3/4. The distractors: 1/4 comes from giving back the probability that the card is a diamond instead of its complement; 1/2 comes from reading 'not a diamond' as 'not a red card' and halving the pack; 3/52 comes from doing the subtraction 4 − 1 = 3 on the suits but then writing that 3 over the 52 cards in the pack instead of over the 4 suits.
(b) 8,100 — First find the total number of alerts sent in the month: 1,500 × 30 = 45,000. Then apply the probability of a 'STOP' reply: 45,000 × 0.18 = 8,100. Stopping after finding only one day's expected replies, 1,500 × 0.18 = 270, forgets to scale up to the whole month. Multiplying the number of days by the probability instead of by the daily total of alerts gives 30 × 0.18 = 5.4, which rounds to 5. Shifting the decimal point in the probability, using 0.018 instead of 0.18, gives 45,000 × 0.018 = 810.
(c) £3.10 — Aisha's tickets cost 8 × 50p = £4.00. Her expected winnings are (8/400) × £45 = £0.90, since she holds 8 of the 400 tickets. Her expected loss is the cost minus the expected winnings: £4.00 − £0.90 = £3.10. Writing £4.00 is wrong because it is only the cost of her tickets, with no account taken of the expected winnings she might get back. Writing £0.90 is wrong because that is her expected WINNINGS, not her loss — the cost has not been subtracted. Writing £3.89 is wrong because it uses 1 ticket instead of her actual 8 tickets when working out the expected winnings: (1/400) × £45 = £0.1125, giving £4.00 − £0.11 = £3.89. Aisha should expect to lose £3.10.
(a) 1276 — Method: an unbiased relative frequency tends towards the theoretical probability as the number of trials increases, so use the record resting on the most trials, then multiply by the number of new trials. Working: the three records rest on 50, 200 and 1000 drops, so the most reliable is the one after 1000 drops, namely 0.638, and the run is indeed settling as the trials increase. The expected number of point up landings in 2000 further drops is 2000 × 0.638 = 1276. Answer: about 1276 times. The distractors: 1440 uses the earliest record, which rests on only 50 drops, giving 2000 × 0.720 = 1440; 1330 uses the middle record, treating 200 drops as a safe compromise when 1000 drops is better still, giving 2000 × 0.665 = 1330; 1348 comes from averaging the three records, since 0.720 + 0.665 + 0.638 = 2.023 and 2.023 ÷ 3 = 0.674, then 2000 × 0.674 = 1348, which gives the 50 drop record the same weight as the 1000 drop record.
(d) 1/8 — Method: a run of flips of a fair coin gives equally likely sequences of heads and tails, so count the sequences that match and divide by how many sequences there are. Working: each flip lands two ways and no flip affects another, so three flips give 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 equally likely sequences: HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH and TTT. Only HHH has a head at every flip, so 1 sequence of the 8 matches. Answer: the probability is 1/8. The distractors: 1/4 comes from treating 'three heads', 'two heads', 'one head' and 'no heads' as four equally likely results, which they are not, since one sequence gives three heads and three sequences give two; 1/6 comes from taking the number of sequences to be 2 + 2 + 2 = 6, adding the two ways each flip can land instead of multiplying them; 1/2 comes from reading the first flip only and giving the probability of a head on one flip, without combining it with the other two.
(b) 0.45 — Winning a toy, winning a sweet and winning neither are mutually exclusive and exhaustive, so their probabilities sum to 1. P(toy) + P(sweet) = 0.15 + 0.4 = 0.55. P(neither) = 1 − 0.55 = 0.45. Adding 0.15 and 0.4 and stopping there gives 0.55, which is the probability of winning a toy or a sweet, not of winning neither. Subtracting only 0.15 from 1 gives 0.85, and ignores the sweet probability entirely. Subtracting only 0.4 from 1 gives 0.6, and ignores the toy probability entirely.

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