Printable · GCSE Foundation · ages 14-16
Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
Fifteen questions across the probability statements at Foundation tier. Choose the non-calculator filter to rehearse Paper 1, which counts for a third of the marks.
Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
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- 1.The probability that a spinner lands on blue is 2/5. Write this probability as a percentage.
- 2.A school surveys 60 pupils. 32 say they walk to school, 24 say they cycle to school, and 12 say they do both, on different days. The rest travel only by car. One of the 60 pupils is chosen at random. Work out the probability that this pupil travels only by car.
- 3.The numbers 1 to 10 are each written on a card. Set A is the set of multiples of 3 from 1 to 10 and set B is the set of even numbers from 1 to 10. Work out how many of the numbers from 1 to 10 are in set A but not in set B.
- 4.Two cards are dealt one after the other from an ordinary pack of 52 playing cards. The first card is not put back before the second is dealt. The pack contains 4 aces. Work out the probability that neither card is an ace. Give your answer as a product of two fractions.
- 5.A fair six-sided dice is rolled 150 times. The table shows how many times each number came up: 1 came up 22 times, 2 came up 27 times, 3 came up 24 times, 4 came up 34 times, 5 came up 21 times and 6 came up 22 times. The theoretical probability of each number is 1/6. Which number is most over-represented compared with its theoretical probability?
- 6.Kwame flips a fair coin three times and writes down what it lands on each time. Work out the probability that it lands on heads all three times.
- 7.Oliver flips three fair coins at the same time. Work out the probability that exactly two of the three coins land on heads.
- 8.A bag contains 5 yellow marbles and 3 blue marbles. Noah takes a marble at random, notes its colour and puts it back in the bag. He then takes a second marble at random. Work out the probability that the first marble is yellow and the second marble is blue.
- 9.A drawer contains 4 red socks and 2 blue socks. Two socks are taken out at random, one after the other, without the first being put back. Work out the probability that both socks are the same colour.
- 10.At a fair, a game costs £2 to play. The probability of winning the game is 0.15, and each win pays out £10. Amir plays the game 200 times. Work out how much money Amir should expect to lose in total.
- 11.A spinner can land on red, blue, green or yellow, and it cannot land on more than one colour. The probability that it lands on red is 0.05 and the probability that it lands on yellow is 0.35. The probability that it lands on blue is twice the probability that it lands on green. Work out the probability that it lands on green.
- 12.In a game, Zara says the probability of scoring is 3/8, the probability of missing is 5/12 and the probability of a rebound is 1/6, and that these are the only three outcomes. Is Zara correct that her three probabilities are valid?
- 13.A fair six-sided dice is rolled once. Write down the probability of rolling a 6.
- 14.150 people at a gym were asked whether they prefer weight training or cardio; each person chose exactly one. 84 of the people are women. 50 of the women prefer cardio. 40 of the men prefer weight training. Work out the probability that a person, chosen at random from the 150, prefers weight training. Give your answer as a fraction in its simplest form.
- 15.Two goalkeepers face penalty kicks. Elin saves 34% of the penalties she faces. Noah saves 11/32 of the penalties he faces. Which statement correctly compares them?
Answer key
- (b) 40% — Method: a fraction becomes a percentage by scaling it so that its denominator is 100, or equivalently by dividing the numerator by the denominator and multiplying the decimal by 100. Working: 5 × 20 = 100, so the numerator is scaled by 20 as well, 2 × 20 = 40, giving 40/100; the same figure comes from 2 ÷ 5 = 0.4 and 0.4 × 100 = 40. Answer: 40%. The distractors: 20% comes from dividing 100 by the denominator alone, 100 ÷ 5 = 20, which is the percentage for 1/5 and never uses the numerator 2; 4% comes from finding the decimal 0.4 correctly and then writing the 4 down as the percentage instead of multiplying by 100; 2% comes from scaling only the denominator up to 100 and leaving the numerator as it was, giving 2/100.
- (a) 4/15 — Method: first find how many pupils travel only by car, then write that as a fraction of the 60 pupils surveyed. Working: pupils who walk or cycle or both = 32 + 24 − 12 = 44. Only by car = 60 − 44 = 16. P(only by car) = 16/60 = 4/15. Answer: 4/15. Watch out: writing down 1/5 takes the overlap of 12 pupils on its own, 12/60, mistaking the group who do both for the group who travel only by car. Writing down 4/5 comes from 60 − 12 = 48, subtracting only the overlap from the total instead of the whole walk-or-cycle count, so cyclists and walkers who are not in the overlap are wrongly swept into the only-car group. And writing down 7/15 comes from 60 − 32 = 28, subtracting the walkers alone and forgetting the cyclists altogether.
- (c) 2 — Set A, the multiples of 3, is {3, 6, 9}. Removing the numbers that are also in set B, the even numbers {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, leaves {3, 9} — 2 numbers are in A but not B. Giving 3, the whole size of set A, forgets to remove the number 6, which is also even. Giving 7 counts every number in A or B combined, {2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 10}, rather than only those in A but not B. Giving 4 counts the numbers in set B but not set A, {2, 4, 8, 10}, the wrong way round.
- (b) (48/52) × (47/51) — Method: for two deals one after the other with nothing put back, multiply the probability of the first by the probability of the second worked out from the cards that are left. Working: 52 − 4 = 48 cards are not aces, so the first card is not an ace with probability 48/52. One card has now gone and it was not an ace, so 51 cards remain and 47 of them are not aces, giving 47/51. Answer: the probability is (48/52) × (47/51). The distractors: (48/52) × (48/52) comes from leaving the pack at 52 cards for the second deal, which is only true if the first card is replaced; (4/52) × (3/51) comes from working out the probability that both cards ARE aces instead of neither; (4/52) × (4/51) comes from the same misreading with the ace count left at 4 while the total is reduced, adjusting only half of the second fraction.
- (b) 4 — With 150 rolls and probability 1/6 for each number, the expected count is 150 ÷ 6 = 25. Comparing each actual count with 25: 1 is 22 (3 below), 2 is 27 (2 above), 3 is 24 (1 below), 4 is 34 (9 above), 5 is 21 (4 below) and 6 is 22 (3 below). Number 4 is furthest above its expected count, so it is the most over-represented. Number 2 is also above its expected count, but by only 2, far less than 4's 9. Number 3's count of 24 is below the expected 25, so it is under-represented, not over. Number 6's count of 22 is also below the expected 25, so it too is under-represented.
- (d) 1/8 — Method: a run of flips of a fair coin gives equally likely sequences of heads and tails, so count the sequences that match and divide by how many sequences there are. Working: each flip lands two ways and no flip affects another, so three flips give 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 equally likely sequences: HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH and TTT. Only HHH has a head at every flip, so 1 sequence of the 8 matches. Answer: the probability is 1/8. The distractors: 1/4 comes from treating 'three heads', 'two heads', 'one head' and 'no heads' as four equally likely results, which they are not, since one sequence gives three heads and three sequences give two; 1/6 comes from taking the number of sequences to be 2 + 2 + 2 = 6, adding the two ways each flip can land instead of multiplying them; 1/2 comes from reading the first flip only and giving the probability of a head on one flip, without combining it with the other two.
- (c) 3/8 — Method: write out every result of the three coins as a string of three letters, H for heads and T for tails, count the results that match the description and divide by how many results the list holds. Working: each coin lands two ways and no coin affects another, so the list holds 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 equally likely results. Exactly two heads means one coin lands on tails and the other two on heads, so the results are HHT, HTH and THH — 3 of the 8. Answer: the probability is 3/8. The distractors: 4/8 comes from reading 'exactly two heads' as 'at least two heads' and counting HHH as well; 2/8 comes from a list made without a system, in which HHT and THH are written down and HTH, the result with the tail between the two heads, is missed; 6/8 comes from counting 3 × 2 = 6 ways of picking which two of the three coins show heads, which counts every pair of coins twice, once in each order.
- (d) 15/64 — Method: because the first marble is put back, the second draw is made from the same 8 marbles, so the two draws are independent and their probabilities are multiplied. Working: the bag holds 8 marbles both times, so yellow first has probability 5/8 and blue second has probability 3/8. Multiplying fractions gives 5 × 3 = 15 on the top and 8 × 8 = 64 on the bottom. Answer: the probability is 15/64. The distractors: 9/64 comes from working out the probability that BOTH marbles are blue, 3/8 × 3/8, instead of one of each colour in the stated order; 15/16 comes from multiplying the numerators but adding the denominators; 5/8 comes from writing down the first draw only and never combining it with the second.
- (d) 7/15 — Both socks are the same colour either if both are red or if both are blue. The probability both are red is 4/6 × 3/5 = 12/30. The probability both are blue is 2/6 × 1/5 = 2/30. Adding these gives 12/30 + 2/30 = 14/30 = 7/15. Choosing 2/5 comes from only working out the 'both red' path, 12/30, and forgetting the 'both blue' path also counts. Choosing 5/9 comes from treating the draws as if the first sock were replaced, using 4/6 × 4/6 + 2/6 × 2/6 = 20/36 = 5/9, instead of reducing the totals for the second draw. Choosing 7/18 comes from reducing the number of socks removed but not the number left to choose from, using 4/6 × 3/6 + 2/6 × 1/6 = 14/36 = 7/18, instead of 5 remaining socks for the second draw.
- (b) £100 — Method: find the expected number of wins, turn that into the expected pay out, then compare it with what the games cost. Working: the expected number of wins is 200 × 0.15 = 30. Each win pays £10, so the expected pay out is 30 × 10 = 300 pounds. Playing 200 times at £2 a go costs 200 × 2 = 400 pounds. The expected loss is 400 − 300 = 100 pounds. Answer: Amir should expect to be about £100 down. The distractors: £300 is the expected winnings on their own, with the cost of playing never taken off; £400 is the total cost of playing, with the winnings never taken off; £700 comes from adding the two totals, 400 + 300 = 700, instead of subtracting one from the other.
- (c) 0.2 — Let P(green) = x, so P(blue) = 2x. Red, blue, green and yellow are exhaustive: 0.05 + 0.35 + x + 2x = 1, so 0.4 + 3x = 1, giving 3x = 0.6 and x = 0.2. So P(green) = 0.2. Splitting the remaining 0.6 evenly between blue and green, ignoring the 2:1 ratio, gives 0.3. Working out x correctly but then reporting 2x, the probability of blue, gives 0.4. Stopping after finding that blue and green together account for 0.6, without dividing by the three equal shares of x, gives 0.6.
- (d) No, because 3/8 + 5/12 + 1/6 = 23/24 — Using a common denominator of 24: 3/8 = 9/24, 5/12 = 10/24 and 1/6 = 4/24. Adding these numerators gives 9 + 10 + 4 = 23, so the three probabilities sum to 23/24, which is less than 1 — Zara is not correct. Adding the original numerators (3 + 5 + 1 = 9) over a denominator of 12 instead of converting each fraction properly gives 9/12 = 3/4, still less than 1 but the wrong fraction. Converting 1/6 to 5/24 instead of 4/24 (using the wrong scaling) makes the total 9/24 + 10/24 + 5/24 = 24/24 = 1, wrongly suggesting the probabilities are valid. Judging validity from the fact that each individual fraction lies between 0 and 1 ignores that an exhaustive set must sum to exactly 1, not merely contain valid individual values.
- (a) 1/6 — Method: for equally likely outcomes, write the number of favourable outcomes over the total number of outcomes. Working: the dice has one face showing 6, and there are 6 equally likely faces in total, so the probability is 1 over 6. Answer: 1/6, which is close to the left-hand end of the 0 to 1 scale because the outcome is unlikely. The distractors: 5/6 comes from giving the probability of not rolling a 6; 1/2 comes from treating 'a 6' and 'not a 6' as two equally likely outcomes; 1/5 comes from writing the one favourable face over the 5 faces that are not a 6 instead of over all 6 faces.
- (b) 37/75 — There are 150 − 84 = 66 men. 84 − 50 = 34 women prefer weight training, and 40 men prefer weight training, so 34 + 40 = 74 people in total prefer weight training, out of 150: 74/150 = 37/75. Writing 4/15 is wrong because it only counts the men who prefer weight training (40/150, simplified), leaving out the 34 women. Writing 17/75 is wrong because it only counts the women who prefer weight training (34/150, simplified), leaving out the 40 men. Writing 37/42 is wrong because it uses the number of women (84) as the denominator instead of the whole gym (150) — 74/84 simplifies to 37/42, but that is not a probability out of the whole group. The probability is 37/75.
- (c) Noah — 11/32 = 0.34375, above 34%. — Converting 11/32 to a decimal gives 11 ÷ 32 = 0.34375, which is greater than 34% (0.34), so Noah has the better save rate: 'Noah — 11/32 = 0.34375, above 34%.' Comparing the raw numbers 34 and 11 directly, without converting the fraction to the same form, gives 'Elin — 34 is bigger than 11.' Treating a larger denominator as meaning a bigger value, rather than smaller equal shares, gives 'Noah — 32 is a bigger denominator.' Rounding 34.375% to 34% to the nearest whole percent hides the difference and gives 'Equal — both round to 34% to the nearest percent.'
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