Printable · GCSE Foundation · ages 14-16
Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
Fifteen questions across the probability statements at Foundation tier. Choose the non-calculator filter to rehearse Paper 1, which counts for a third of the marks.
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Answer key: Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
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- (b) 3 — Method: build the list of possible results systematically, taking the first flip as a head and then as a tail, and keeping the two flips in order so that a head then a tail is a different result from a tail then a head; then count the results that match the description. Working: with a head at the first flip the results are HH and HT, and with a tail at the first flip they are TH and TT, so the list is HH, HT, TH, TT — four results in all. The results containing at least one tail are HT, TH and TT. Answer: 3 of the results in the list contain at least one tail. The distractors: 2 comes from treating a head and a tail as one result however they are ordered, which shortens the list to HH, HT, TT so that only two entries hold a tail; 1 comes from reading 'at least one tail' as a tail at both flips, which is the single result TT; 4 comes from counting the tails written across the list — one in HT, one in TH and two in TT — instead of counting the results that contain a tail.
- (b) 1/12 — Method: the coin does not affect the dice, so the two events are independent and the probability that both happen is the product of their probabilities. Working: heads has probability 1/2 and a 6 on an ordinary dice has probability 1/6. Multiplying gives 1 on the top and 2 × 6 = 12 on the bottom. Answer: the probability is 1/12. The distractors: 2/3 comes from adding 1/2 and 1/6 instead of multiplying them; 1/6 comes from using the dice alone and ignoring the condition on the coin; 1/8 comes from counting the possible results as 6 + 2 = 8 and treating the winning result as one of those eight.
- (d) 7/15 — Both socks are the same colour either if both are red or if both are blue. The probability both are red is 4/6 × 3/5 = 12/30. The probability both are blue is 2/6 × 1/5 = 2/30. Adding these gives 12/30 + 2/30 = 14/30 = 7/15. Choosing 2/5 comes from only working out the 'both red' path, 12/30, and forgetting the 'both blue' path also counts. Choosing 5/9 comes from treating the draws as if the first sock were replaced, using 4/6 × 4/6 + 2/6 × 2/6 = 20/36 = 5/9, instead of reducing the totals for the second draw. Choosing 7/18 comes from reducing the number of socks removed but not the number left to choose from, using 4/6 × 3/6 + 2/6 × 1/6 = 14/36 = 7/18, instead of 5 remaining socks for the second draw.
- (c) Game Y — 0.4 is greater than 3/8. — Converting 3/8 to a decimal gives 3 ÷ 8 = 0.375, and 0.4 is greater than 0.375, so game Y gives the better chance of winning: 'Game Y — 0.4 is greater than 3/8.' Comparing the numerator 3 to the digit 0 in front of the decimal point in 0.4 compares two unrelated numbers and gives 'Game X — 3 is greater than 0, the units digit of 0.4.' Treating a larger denominator as meaning more chances, rather than smaller equal shares, gives 'Game X — 3/8 has the larger denominator.' Rounding 0.375 to 0.4 to one decimal place makes the two values look equal, but they are not exactly equal, so 'Equal — 3/8 rounds to 0.4 to one decimal place' mistakes a rounded match for a true one.
- (b) 15/32 — Method: there are two ways to get one of each colour, red then blue and blue then red. Work out the probability of each path by multiplying, then add the two paths. Working: red then blue is 5/8 × 3/8 = 15/64, and blue then red is 3/8 × 5/8 = 15/64. Adding the two paths gives 30/64. Answer: the probability is 15/32. The distractors: 15/64 comes from working out red then blue only and forgetting that blue then red also gives one of each; 15/28 comes from doubling correctly but reducing the total to 7 for the second spin, which is what happens to a bag when an item is kept out, not to a spinner; 39/64 comes from working from the opposite event and subtracting only the two-red case, 1 − 25/64, leaving the two-blue case inside the answer.
- (d) 32 — The frequency tree already shows the tea-and-coffee branch directly: of the 50 tea drinkers, 32 also drink coffee, so n(T ∩ C) = 32. Adding both coffee branches together, 32 + 6 = 38, gives n(C), the total number of coffee drinkers, not just those who also drink tea. Using the non-tea branch's figure, 6, describes people who drink coffee but NOT tea. Subtracting to get 50 − 32 = 18 finds the tea drinkers who do NOT drink coffee, the opposite region to the one asked for.
- (b) £13.50 — The total cost of Nadia's 25 tickets is 25 × £1.50 = £37.50. The expected number of winning tickets is 25 × 0.12 = 3, so the expected prize money is 3 × £8 = £24.00. Nadia's expected loss is the cost minus the expected prize money: £37.50 − £24.00 = £13.50. A candidate who answers £24.00 has given the expected prize money and mistaken it for the loss. A candidate who answers £37.50 has given the total cost of the tickets, forgetting to subtract the expected prize money. A candidate who answers £34.50 has subtracted the expected number of wins, 3, from the cost instead of first converting it to prize money by multiplying by £8.
- (a) 1/10 — There are 4 × 5 = 20 equally likely outcomes in total. The pairs whose product is 12 are Spinner A showing 3 with Spinner B showing 4, and Spinner A showing 4 with Spinner B showing 3, which is 2 outcomes, giving a probability of 2/20 = 1/10. Choosing 1/20 comes from finding only one of the two pairs, (3, 4), and missing (4, 3) as a separate outcome. Choosing 1/8 comes from using 16 as the total number of outcomes, 4 × 4, forgetting that Spinner B has 5 sections rather than 4. Choosing 1/5 comes from listing the factor pairs of 12 as 2 × 6 and 3 × 4 and counting each one in both orders, (2, 6), (6, 2), (3, 4) and (4, 3), giving 4 outcomes out of 20 without checking that neither spinner has a 6 on it.
- (b) 57/100 — Pooling both trials: total heads = 24 + 33 = 57, total flips = 40 + 60 = 100, so the combined relative frequency is 57/100, which is already in its simplest form since 57 and 100 share no common factor. Averaging the two separate relative frequencies instead, (24/40 + 33/60) ÷ 2 = (0.6 + 0.55) ÷ 2 = 0.575 = 23/40, treats the two trials as equally weighted even though Ben made more flips, which is not correct. Using only Leah's data gives 24/40 = 3/5. Using only Ben's data gives 33/60 = 11/20.
- (a) unlikely — 3/8 = 3 ÷ 8 = 0.375, which is between 0 and 0.5, so the probability is best described as unlikely. Rounding 3/8 loosely to 'about a half' without converting it properly leads to evens, which is wrong since 0.375 is noticeably below 0.5. Reading 3/8 as the complement and using 1 − 3/8 = 5/8 = 0.625 instead gives likely, but the question asks about the probability of 3/8 itself, not its complement. Flipping the fraction to 8/3 ≈ 2.67, which is impossible for a probability, and rounding it towards the top of the scale gives certain.
- (a) 4/9 — There are 3 × 6 = 18 equally likely outcomes. The product is a multiple of 5 whenever Spinner C shows 5, whatever Spinner D shows, which is 6 outcomes, or whenever Spinner D shows 5 and Spinner C shows 2 or 3, which is 2 more outcomes. This gives 6 + 2 = 8 outcomes, so the probability is 8/18 = 4/9. Choosing 1/3 comes from only counting the 6 outcomes where Spinner C shows 5 and forgetting the 2 outcomes where Spinner D shows 5 instead. Choosing 1/9 comes from only counting the 2 outcomes where Spinner D shows 5 and forgetting the 6 outcomes where Spinner C shows 5. Choosing 1/2 comes from counting 9 outcomes instead of 8, by listing the case where Spinner C shows 5 and Spinner D shows 5 twice over.
- (c) 30 — The numbers less than 4 are 1, 2 and 3, so the probability of that event is 3/6, and the expected count in 90 rolls is 90 × 3/6 = 45. The probability of rolling a 6 is 1/6, and the expected count is 90 × 1/6 = 15. The difference between the two expected counts is 45 − 15 = 30. A candidate who answers 45 has given the expected count for 'less than 4' only, forgetting to subtract the other expected count. A candidate who answers 15 has given the expected count for '6' only. A candidate who answers 36 has used a dice with 5 possible numbers instead of 6, giving 90 × 3/5 = 54 and 90 × 1/5 = 18, a difference of 36.
- (b) (48/52) × (47/51) — Method: for two deals one after the other with nothing put back, multiply the probability of the first by the probability of the second worked out from the cards that are left. Working: 52 − 4 = 48 cards are not aces, so the first card is not an ace with probability 48/52. One card has now gone and it was not an ace, so 51 cards remain and 47 of them are not aces, giving 47/51. Answer: the probability is (48/52) × (47/51). The distractors: (48/52) × (48/52) comes from leaving the pack at 52 cards for the second deal, which is only true if the first card is replaced; (4/52) × (3/51) comes from working out the probability that both cards ARE aces instead of neither; (4/52) × (4/51) comes from the same misreading with the ace count left at 4 while the total is reduced, adjusting only half of the second fraction.
- (d) 1/20 — Mia has 25 of the 500 tickets, so the probability she wins is 25/500 = 1/20, dividing the top and the bottom by 25. Writing 19/20 is wrong because that is the probability she does NOT win (1 − 1/20 = 19/20), the opposite of what is asked. Writing 1/25 is wrong because it puts 1 over the number of tickets Mia holds, as though her 25 tickets were the whole raffle — the denominator has to be the 500 tickets sold, not her own share. Writing 1/10 is wrong because it treats the raffle as having only 250 tickets instead of the actual 500: 25/250 = 1/10. The probability that Mia wins is 1/20.
- (d) 19/100 — It is easier to first find the probability that NEITHER component is faulty, then subtract from 1. The probability a component is not faulty is 9/10, so the probability neither is faulty is 9/10 × 9/10 = 81/100. So the probability at least one is faulty is 1 − 81/100 = 19/100. Choosing 1/5 comes from adding the two probabilities of a fault instead, 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5, which double-counts the case where both are faulty. Choosing 1/10 comes from giving the probability for just one component being faulty. Choosing 1/100 comes from squaring the probability of a fault directly, 1/10 × 1/10 = 1/100, which is actually the probability that BOTH are faulty, not at least one.
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