Printable · GCSE Foundation · ages 14-16
Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
Fifteen questions across the probability statements at Foundation tier. Choose the non-calculator filter to rehearse Paper 1, which counts for a third of the marks.
Answer key: Probability worksheet — GCSE Foundation
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- (b) 8,100 — First find the total number of alerts sent in the month: 1,500 × 30 = 45,000. Then apply the probability of a 'STOP' reply: 45,000 × 0.18 = 8,100. Stopping after finding only one day's expected replies, 1,500 × 0.18 = 270, forgets to scale up to the whole month. Multiplying the number of days by the probability instead of by the daily total of alerts gives 30 × 0.18 = 5.4, which rounds to 5. Shifting the decimal point in the probability, using 0.018 instead of 0.18, gives 45,000 × 0.018 = 810.
- (d) 3/16 — Method: work out each draw's own probability first, then multiply them together since the two draws are independent. Working: there are 8 tickets in all, 3 of them blue, so P(blue) = 3/8. P(spinner number greater than 2) = 2/4 = 1/2, since 3 and 4 qualify. Multiplying gives 3/8 × 1/2, which comes to 3/16. Answer: 3/16. Watch out: writing down 3/8 stops after the first draw and never brings in the spinner at all. Writing down 1/2 does the opposite, using only the spinner and ignoring the ticket draw. And writing down 5/16 uses 5/8, the probability of a RED ticket, instead of 3/8 for blue — reading the wrong colour off the raffle.
- (a) 6.75% — Finishing, retiring and being disqualified are exhaustive, so the three percentages sum to 100%: 100% − 68.5% − 24.75% = 6.75%. Adding the two given percentages instead of subtracting them from 100% gives 68.5% + 24.75% = 93.25%, the combined probability of finishing or retiring, not of being disqualified. Subtracting only the retiring percentage from 100% and forgetting the finishing percentage gives 100% − 24.75% = 75.25%. Subtracting only the finishing percentage and forgetting the retiring percentage gives 100% − 68.5% = 31.50%.
- (a) 1276 — Method: an unbiased relative frequency tends towards the theoretical probability as the number of trials increases, so use the record resting on the most trials, then multiply by the number of new trials. Working: the three records rest on 50, 200 and 1000 drops, so the most reliable is the one after 1000 drops, namely 0.638, and the run is indeed settling as the trials increase. The expected number of point up landings in 2000 further drops is 2000 × 0.638 = 1276. Answer: about 1276 times. The distractors: 1440 uses the earliest record, which rests on only 50 drops, giving 2000 × 0.720 = 1440; 1330 uses the middle record, treating 200 drops as a safe compromise when 1000 drops is better still, giving 2000 × 0.665 = 1330; 1348 comes from averaging the three records, since 0.720 + 0.665 + 0.638 = 2.023 and 2.023 ÷ 3 = 0.674, then 2000 × 0.674 = 1348, which gives the 50 drop record the same weight as the 1000 drop record.
- (c) 36 — On the adult branch there are 90 tickets in total, and 54 of them are for the 3D showing, so the standard-showing branch is 90 − 54 = 36. Subtracting 54 from the overall total of 150 gives 96, but 150 is the total for ALL tickets, not just the adult branch, so 96 is wrong. Writing 60 is wrong because that is the number of CHILD tickets (150 − 90 = 60), not adult standard tickets. Writing 54 again is wrong because that is the number of adult 3D tickets, not the number of adult standard tickets. The adult standard-showing branch is 36.
- (c) 3/16 — The probability that Priya misses a shot is 1 − 3/4 = 1/4. The two shots are independent, so multiply the probability of scoring the first shot by the probability of missing the second shot: 3/4 × 1/4 = 3/16. Choosing 9/16 comes from using the probability of scoring, 3/4, for both shots instead of switching to the miss probability for the second shot, 3/4 × 3/4 = 9/16, which is the probability that she scores with both shots. Choosing 1/2 comes from subtracting the two probabilities instead of multiplying them, 3/4 − 1/4 = 1/2. Choosing 3/4 comes from giving only the probability that she scores with the first shot, forgetting to combine it with what happens on the second shot.
- (b) £100 — Over 250 games, the expected total winnings are 250 × (1/5) × £12 = £600, since a player wins on 1 of the 5 equally likely sections. The total cost of playing is 250 × £2 = £500. The players' expected profit is the winnings minus the cost: £600 − £500 = £100. Writing £500 is wrong because that is only the total cost of playing, without any winnings included. Writing £600 is wrong because that is only the total expected winnings, without subtracting what was paid to play. Writing £2,500 is wrong because it assumes a win on every single game (250 × £12 = £3,000) instead of using the 1-in-5 probability, then subtracts the cost: £3,000 − £500 = £2,500. The players' expected profit over the 250 games is £100.
- (d) 3/20 — The probability of taking a red ball from Bag A is 3/5, and the probability of taking a red ball from Bag B is 1/4. Since the two picks are independent, the probabilities are multiplied: 3/5 × 1/4 = 3/20. A candidate who answers 4/9 has added the numerators and added the denominators, (3+1)/(5+4), instead of multiplying the two fractions. A candidate who answers 17/20 has added the two fractions, 3/5 + 1/4, instead of multiplying them. A candidate who answers 3/25 has misread Bag B as also containing 5 balls, using 1/5 instead of 1/4.
- (c) 0.512 — Method: independent events that must all happen are combined by multiplying their probabilities. Working: the first two questions give 0.8 × 0.8 = 0.64. Bringing in the third gives 0.64 × 0.8, and since 64 × 8 = 512 with three decimal places in the product, this is 0.512. Answer: the probability is 0.512. The distractors: 0.64 comes from multiplying only two of the three probabilities and stopping; 0.8 comes from reading 'independent' as meaning the probability never changes and writing down the single-question figure; 0.0512 comes from a place-value slip in the last multiplication, counting four decimal places instead of three.
- (a) No — the three probabilities sum to 1.10, over 1. — Winning, drawing and losing are exhaustive and mutually exclusive, so their probabilities must sum to exactly 1. Adding Freddie's three values gives 0.45 + 0.3 + 0.35 = 1.10, which is more than 1, so his probabilities cannot all be correct: 'No — the three probabilities sum to 1.10, over 1.' Checking only that each value lies between 0 and 1 accepts them as 'Yes — each probability lies between 0 and 1' without ever adding the three together. Judging by which outcome sounds most likely leads to 'Yes — winning has the highest single probability', which never checks the total either. Noting that a runner cannot win, draw and lose at once, and treating that alone as enough, gives 'Yes — the three outcomes are mutually exclusive' — but mutually exclusive outcomes that are also exhaustive must still sum to 1, and 1.10 does not.
- (a) 20 — Dice A is fair, so its expected number of sixes is 150 × 1/6 = 25. Dice B has P(6) = 0.3, so its expected number of sixes is 150 × 0.3 = 45. The difference is 45 − 25 = 20. Adding the two expected values instead of subtracting them gives 25 + 45 = 70. Reporting Dice B's expected sixes on their own, without comparing to Dice A, gives 45. Using the fair probability 1/6 for Dice B as well as Dice A ignores the bias altogether, giving 150 × 1/6 = 25 for both dice and a difference of 0.
- (d) 0.80 — Evens is exactly halfway along the scale, at 0.5, and 3/10 written as a decimal is 0.3. A probability 3/10 higher than evens is 0.5 + 0.3 = 0.80. Giving 0.30 as the answer converts the increase but never adds it to the value of evens. Adding the increase to 1, the 'certain' end of the scale, instead of to evens gives 1 + 0.3 = 1.30, which cannot be a probability. Writing 3/10 as 0.03 instead of 0.3, a place-value slip, gives 0.5 + 0.03 = 0.53.
- (d) 1/8 — Method: a run of flips of a fair coin gives equally likely sequences of heads and tails, so count the sequences that match and divide by how many sequences there are. Working: each flip lands two ways and no flip affects another, so three flips give 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 equally likely sequences: HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH and TTT. Only HHH has a head at every flip, so 1 sequence of the 8 matches. Answer: the probability is 1/8. The distractors: 1/4 comes from treating 'three heads', 'two heads', 'one head' and 'no heads' as four equally likely results, which they are not, since one sequence gives three heads and three sequences give two; 1/6 comes from taking the number of sequences to be 2 + 2 + 2 = 6, adding the two ways each flip can land instead of multiplying them; 1/2 comes from reading the first flip only and giving the probability of a head on one flip, without combining it with the other two.
- (d) 1/15 — The probability that the first bead is red is 3/10. Since the first bead is not put back, there are now only 2 red beads left out of 9 beads in total, so the probability that the second bead is also red is 2/9. Multiplying these, 3/10 × 2/9 = 6/90 = 1/15. A candidate who answers 9/100 has treated the beads as replaced, using 3/10 twice. A candidate who answers 3/50 has correctly reduced the red count to 2 for the second pick but forgotten that the total also falls to 9, using 2/10 instead. A candidate who answers 5/19 has added the numerators and added the denominators, (3+2)/(10+9), instead of multiplying.
- (d) 19/100 — It is easier to first find the probability that NEITHER component is faulty, then subtract from 1. The probability a component is not faulty is 9/10, so the probability neither is faulty is 9/10 × 9/10 = 81/100. So the probability at least one is faulty is 1 − 81/100 = 19/100. Choosing 1/5 comes from adding the two probabilities of a fault instead, 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5, which double-counts the case where both are faulty. Choosing 1/10 comes from giving the probability for just one component being faulty. Choosing 1/100 comes from squaring the probability of a fault directly, 1/10 × 1/10 = 1/100, which is actually the probability that BOTH are faulty, not at least one.
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