Sample paper · GCSE Foundation · grades 1–5
GCSE Foundation sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
The real Paper 1 is 1.5 hour 30 minutes and 80 marks, non-calculator, and all three papers carry equal weight. This sample is 20 original questions in the same content proportions as the Foundation qualification — number 25%, algebra 20%, ratio, proportion and rates of change 25%, geometry and measures 15%, probability 7.5%, statistics 7.5% — with no calculator-only items. AO1 / AO2 / AO3 at this tier: 50% / 25% / 25%.
Non-calculatorGCSE Foundation
GCSE Foundation sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
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- 1.A vending machine sells 4 types of crisps, 5 types of chocolate bar and 2 types of drink. Work out how many different combinations of one crisp packet, one chocolate bar and one drink can be bought.
- 2.Which of these equations gives a graph shaped like a U, symmetrical about a vertical line?
- 3.Write the ratio 3/4 : 1/2 as a ratio of whole numbers in its simplest form.
- 4.Point M lies exactly halfway between point A and point B, with A, M and B all on the same straight line. Which term correctly describes point M?
- 5.An ordinary pack of 52 playing cards contains 13 hearts. One card is taken at random from the pack. Work out the probability that the card is not a heart. Give your answer as a percentage.
- 6.The table shows the times, t minutes, that 30 pupils took to walk to school. 0 < t ≤ 10: 8 pupils. 10 < t ≤ 20: 12 pupils. 20 < t ≤ 30: 6 pupils. 30 < t ≤ 40: 4 pupils. Write down which average can be given exactly from this table, and give a reason for your answer.
- 7.Write down a prime number between 30 and 40.
- 8.Make x the subject of the formula y = 4x − 3.y = 4x − 3
- 9.A bag contains red counters and blue counters in the ratio 5:3. There are 56 counters in the bag altogether. Work out how many counters are blue.
- 10.Triangle ABC has AB = 9 cm, BC = 6 cm and angle A = 35°. Triangle DEF has DE = 9 cm, EF = 6 cm and angle D = 35°. Which of the following correctly identifies the condition shown here?
- 11.A factory checked 400 items. A frequency tree splits them into 250 items made by machine A and 150 items made by machine B. On machine A's branch, 15 of the items were faulty. On machine B's branch, 5 of the items were faulty. One of the 400 items is picked at random. Work out the probability that it is faulty. Give your answer as a fraction in its simplest form.
- 12.A café offers sandwiches with one filling from 5 choices and one type of bread from 4 choices. Cheese and mustard, which is one of the 5 fillings, is not available on gluten-free bread, which is one of the 4 breads. Work out how many different sandwiches are possible.
- 13.The nth term of a sequence is 4n − 3. Work out the 7th term of the sequence.
- 14.A water tank has a capacity of 500 litres. It currently holds 350 litres of water. Write the amount of empty space in the tank as a fraction of the tank's capacity. Give your answer in its simplest form.
- 15.Freya is designing a triangular flower bed. Two of its corners have equal angles, and the angle at the third corner is 40°. Work out the size of one of the two equal corner angles.
- 16.Sara has a red T-shirt, a blue T-shirt and a green T-shirt. She has black shorts and grey shorts. By listing the combinations systematically, work out how many different outfits of one T-shirt and one pair of shorts she can make.
- 17.A number machine adds 1 to its input. Isla says that an input of 5 gives an output of 6. Which statement is correct?
- 18.1 litre = 100 centilitres. Work out how many centilitres there are in 6 litres.
- 19.A tin of soup has a mass of 450 g. A bag of potatoes has a mass of 2.6 kg. Work out the total mass, in kilograms.
- 20.A metal has a density of 7.8 g/cm³. Work out the density of the metal in kg/m³.
Answer key
- (a) 40 — Multiply the number of choices for each item: 4 × 5 × 2 = 40. 11 comes from adding the three numbers instead of multiplying them. 20 comes from multiplying only the crisps and chocolate bars, 4 × 5, and forgetting the drink. 10 comes from multiplying only the chocolate bars and drinks, 5 × 2, and forgetting the crisps.
- (a) y = x² + 2 — A quadratic equation, with x², gives a graph shaped like a symmetrical U (or an upside-down U). Of the four equations, y = x² + 2 is quadratic, so it gives this U-shape. y = x³ + 2 is cubic, giving an S-shaped curve rather than a symmetrical U. y = 2x + 2 is linear, giving a straight line. y = 2/x is reciprocal, giving two separate curved branches rather than a single U-shape.
- (b) 3:2 — Write both fractions over a common denominator of 4: 3/4 stays as 3/4, and 1/2 = 2/4. Comparing the numerators gives the ratio 3 : 2. Getting 2 : 3 swaps the two parts round. Getting 3 : 1 comes from using the numerator of the first fraction and the original numerator of the second fraction (1) without converting to a common denominator. Getting 2 : 1 comes from using only the denominators, 4 and 2, and simplifying those instead of the numerators.
- (c) The midpoint of AB — M is a single point lying exactly halfway along the straight line AB, so 'the midpoint of AB' correctly describes it. 'The vertex of AB' is wrong because a vertex is a corner point where two edges or lines meet, which does not apply to a point on a single straight line. 'A perpendicular of AB' is wrong because perpendicular describes two lines meeting at right angles, not a single point. 'A plane of AB' is wrong because a plane is a flat two-dimensional surface, not a point.
- (d) 75% — Method: count how many cards are not hearts, write that count over the total number of cards, cancel the fraction down and then turn it into a percentage. Working: 52 − 13 = 39 cards are not hearts, so the probability is 39/52; dividing the numerator and the denominator by 13 gives 3/4, and 3/4 = 0.75, so 0.75 × 100 = 75. Answer: 75%, three quarters of the way along the 0 to 1 scale. The distractors: 25% comes from giving the probability that the card is a heart, 13 out of 52, which cancels to 1/4; 50% comes from reading 'not a heart' as 'not a red card' and halving the pack; 39% comes from writing the count of 39 cards straight down as the percentage without comparing it with the 52 cards in the pack.
- (d) The modal class, as the class with most pupils is shown — Method: a grouped frequency table records how many values fall into each class, but not the values themselves, so any average that needs the individual times can only be estimated from it. Working: the four frequencies are 8, 12, 6 and 4, and 8 + 12 + 6 + 4 = 30, so every pupil is counted. The largest frequency is 12, which belongs to the class 10 < t ≤ 20, and that class can be written down exactly, because finding it needs nothing but the counts the table already gives. Answer: the modal class, as the class with most pupils is shown. The distractors: the mean is said to use all 30 times, but the table does not hold them; the usual method replaces each class by its midpoint, 5, 15, 25 and 35, which gives an estimate of the mean and not its true value; the median is said to be shown, but the table locates only the class holding the 15th and 16th times, which is 10 < t ≤ 20, without saying what either time was; the range is said to be shown, but 0 and 40 are the boundaries of the first and last classes, not the fastest and slowest times actually recorded.
- (b) 31 — Method: a prime number has exactly two factors, 1 and itself, so check each number between 30 and 40 for other factors. Working: 3 × 11 = 33, so 33 is not prime. 2 × 17 = 34, so 34 is not prime. 4 × 9 = 36, so 36 is not prime. 31 has no factors other than 1 and 31, so it is prime. Answer: 31.
- (d) x = (y + 3)/4 — Two operations have been applied to x: it has been multiplied by 4 and then 3 has been subtracted. Undo them in the opposite order. Adding 3 to both sides gives y + 3 = 4x. Dividing both sides by 4 then gives (y + 3)/4 = x, so x = (y + 3)/4. The bracket matters: writing y/4 + 3 divides only the y by 4 and leaves the 3 untouched. Writing (y − 3)/4 subtracts the 3 instead of adding it, and writing 4(y + 3) multiplies by 4 rather than dividing.
- (d) 21 — Add the parts: 5 + 3 = 8. Divide the total by the number of parts: 56 ÷ 8 = 7, so one part is worth 7 counters. Blue has 3 parts: 3 × 7 = 21. (35 is the number of red counters, using 5 parts instead of 3. 28 comes from splitting 56 counters in half instead of in the ratio 5:3. 7 is the value of one part — the number of blue counters is 3 lots of this, not just one.)
- (a) SSA - not sufficient to prove congruence — The angle given, angle A, is not the angle between sides AB and BC — it is not the included angle — so this data is SSA (side, side, angle), which is not sufficient to prove congruence on its own; two triangles can share this SSA information without being congruent. SAS is wrong because the given angle is not the one included between the two given sides. ASA is wrong because only one angle (A) is given, not two. AAS is wrong for the same reason — only one angle is given, not two.
- (d) 1/20 — Method: add the counts on the faulty end branches, divide by the total number of items in the experiment, then cancel. Working: the faulty items number 15 + 5 = 20, and 400 items were checked, so the probability is 20/400. Dividing the top and the bottom by 20 gives 1/20. Answer: the probability is 1/20. The distractors: 3/50 is 15/250 and comes from dividing machine A's faults by machine A's output, which is that machine's own fault rate rather than the probability for the whole batch; 1/30 is 5/150 and does the same on machine B's branch; 19/20 is 380/400 and gives the probability that the item picked is not faulty.
- (c) 19 — Without any restriction there would be 5 × 4 = 20 different sandwiches. The restriction removes exactly one combination, cheese and mustard on gluten-free bread, so subtract 1: 20 − 1 = 19. 20 comes from ignoring the restriction completely. 15 comes from removing the gluten-free bread altogether, as if none of the fillings were available on it, 5 × 3 = 15. 16 comes from removing the cheese and mustard filling completely, as if it were not available on any bread, 4 × 4 = 16.
- (b) 25 — Substitute n = 7: 4 × 7 − 3 = 28 − 3 = 25. Forgetting to subtract 3 gives 4 × 7 = 28. Subtracting 3 from 7 before multiplying by 4, 4 × (7 − 3) = 16, applies the operations in the wrong order. Substituting n = 8 by miscounting the position gives 4 × 8 − 3 = 29.
- (b) 3/10 — Work out the empty space: 500 − 350 = 150 litres. Form the fraction 150/500; both numbers share a factor of 50, so 150 ÷ 50 = 3 and 500 ÷ 50 = 10, giving 3/10. 7/10 comes from writing the fraction of the tank that is full (350/500), instead of the empty space. 1/2 comes from miscalculating 500 − 350 as 250 instead of 150. 3/7 comes from comparing the empty space with the water held (150/350), instead of with the tank's total capacity.
- (a) 70° — Method: the three angles of a triangle add up to 180°, so take the known corner away from 180° to find what is left for the other two corners, then share that remainder equally because those two corners are equal. Working: 180 − 40 = 140, and the two equal corners share that 140° between them, so 140 ÷ 2 = 70. Answer: 70°. The distractors: 140° comes from stopping after 180 − 40 and offering the combined total of the two equal corners as though it were the size of one of them; 20° comes from halving the 40° corner that was given instead of halving the 140° that the other two corners have to share; 50° comes from 90 − 40, using the two acute angles of a right-angled triangle as the fixed total rather than the 180° angle sum of the whole triangle.
- (c) 6 — Listing systematically: red-black, red-grey, blue-black, blue-grey, green-black, green-grey gives 6 different outfits, matching 3 × 2 = 6. 5 comes from adding the number of T-shirts and shorts instead of multiplying them. 3 comes from counting only the T-shirts. 2 comes from counting only the pairs of shorts.
- (d) Isla is right, because 5 + 1 = 6 — Method: put the input through the machine yourself, then compare what comes out with the output claimed, and check that the reason given with the verdict is itself true. Working: the machine adds 1 to whatever is put in, so an input of 5 gives 5 + 1 = 6, which is exactly the output claimed. Answer: Isla is right, and the reason is that 5 + 1 = 6. The distractors: the statement that the machine adds 1 to its output describes a different machine — this one adds 1 to what goes in — so the verdict is right but the reason is false; 5 − 1 = 4 comes from running the machine backwards and subtracting instead of adding; 5 × 1 = 5 comes from reading ‘adds 1’ as ‘multiplies by 1’, which leaves the input unchanged.
- (c) 600 centilitres — Method: changing a larger unit into a smaller one means multiplying by the conversion factor given in the question. Working: 6 × 100 = 600. Answer: 600 centilitres. The distractors: 60 centilitres comes from multiplying by 10, as if a litre held 10 centilitres; 6000 centilitres comes from multiplying by 1000, which is the number of millilitres in a litre, not centilitres; 106 centilitres comes from adding 100 and 6 instead of multiplying.
- (c) 3.05 kg — There are 1000 g in 1 kg, so 450 g = 450 ÷ 1000 = 0.45 kg. The total mass is 0.45 + 2.6 = 3.05 kg. 7.1 kg divides the grams by 100 instead of 1000, 2.645 kg divides them by 10 000, and 452.6 kg adds the two numbers without converting the grams at all.
- (c) 7800 kg/m³ — Method: build the conversion factor from the two unit changes separately — one for the mass, one for the volume. Working: 1 kg = 1000 g, so the mass figure is divided by 1000; 1 m = 100 cm, so 1 m³ = 100 × 100 × 100 = 1000000 cm³ and the volume figure is multiplied by 1000000. The density figure is therefore multiplied by 1000000 ÷ 1000 = 1000, giving 7.8 × 1000 = 7800. So the density of the metal is 7800 kg/m³. Distractor 780 kg/m³ comes from multiplying by 100 instead of 1000. Distractor 78000 kg/m³ comes from multiplying by 10000, an extra zero. Distractor 7.8 kg/m³ comes from not converting the units at all.
How the 20 questions are shared out
- Number — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Algebra — 4 questions (20% of the qualification)
- Ratio, proportion and rates of change — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Geometry and measures — 3 questions (15% of the qualification)
- Probability — 2 questions (7.5% of the qualification)
- Statistics — 1 question (7.5% of the qualification)
Where an area has fewer printable questions than its share, the shortfall is filled from the other areas. These are original questions, not past papers.