Sample paper · GCSE Foundation · grades 1–5
GCSE Foundation sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
The real Paper 1 is 1.5 hour 30 minutes and 80 marks, non-calculator, and all three papers carry equal weight. This sample is 20 original questions in the same content proportions as the Foundation qualification — number 25%, algebra 20%, ratio, proportion and rates of change 25%, geometry and measures 15%, probability 7.5%, statistics 7.5% — with no calculator-only items. AO1 / AO2 / AO3 at this tier: 50% / 25% / 25%.
Non-calculatorGCSE Foundation
GCSE Foundation sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
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- 1.Work out the highest common factor of 20 and 32.
- 2.A charity's fundraising total, T pounds, over d days follows T = (d − 3)(30 − d) for 3 ≤ d ≤ 30, where T = 0 marks the start and end of the campaign. Work out how many days the campaign runs for, from start to end.
- 3.For the pairs x = 6, y = 15 and x = 10, y = 25, which statement is correct?
- 4.A parallelogram has an area of 84 cm² and a base of 12 cm. Work out the perpendicular height of the parallelogram.
- 5.A red fair dice and a blue fair dice are rolled together. Every outcome is listed as an ordered pair, red score then blue score. Work out the probability that the red score is less than the blue score.
- 6.A gardener plants 600 daffodil bulbs. In March she digs up 20 of them, chosen at random, and finds that 17 have flowered. Write down what she can conclude about the 600 bulbs.
- 7.Which statement about the number 51 is correct?
- 8.A car park charges by the hour. Parking for 1 hour costs £5, 2 hours costs £9, 3 hours costs £13 and 4 hours costs £17, with the cost increasing by the same amount for each extra hour. Work out an expression, in terms of n, for the cost, in pounds, of parking for n hours.
- 9.y is directly proportional to x, and y = 3x. Work out the value of y when x = 4.y = 3x
- 10.Write down the exact value of cos 60°.
- 11.A fair six-sided dice is rolled once. Write down the probability of rolling a 6.
- 12.A café offers sandwiches with one filling from 5 choices and one type of bread from 4 choices. Cheese and mustard, which is one of the 5 fillings, is not available on gluten-free bread, which is one of the 4 breads. Work out how many different sandwiches are possible.
- 13.Factorise fully 56x − 24
- 14.Two cars travel at constant speeds. Car A travels 150 km in 3 hours. Car B travels 180 km in 4 hours. Which car is faster, and what is its speed?
- 15.A triangular prism has two triangular faces and three rectangular faces. How many vertices does a triangular prism have?
- 16.3/5 of the students in a year group walk to school. 90 students walk to school. Work out the total number of students in the year group.
- 17.The solution to an inequality is n ≤ 5. Write down the largest integer value of n that satisfies this inequality.
- 18.A box holds 60 crayons. 25 of the crayons are broken and the rest are unbroken. Write the number of unbroken crayons as a fraction of the number of broken crayons. Give your answer in its simplest form.
- 19.A train journey takes 45 minutes, correct to the nearest 5 minutes. Using t for the actual time of the journey in minutes, write down the error interval for t.
- 20.A hosepipe fills a paddling pool at a constant rate. The volume of water in the pool increases by 15 litres every 3 minutes. Write down the gradient of the graph of volume against time.
Answer key
- (b) 4 — Method: list the factors of each number and compare them; the highest common factor is the largest number that appears in both lists. Working: the factors of 20 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20; the factors of 32 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32. The numbers that appear in both lists are 1, 2 and 4, and the largest of these is 4. 2 is a common factor of 20 and 32 but not the largest one. 8 is a factor of 32 but not of 20, since 20 ÷ 8 is not a whole number. 160 is the lowest common multiple of 20 and 32, not their highest common factor. Answer: 4.
- (c) 27 days — The campaign starts at d = 3 and ends at d = 30, so it runs for 30 − 3 = 27 days. Getting 33 days comes from adding the two values, 3 + 30 = 33, instead of subtracting them. Getting 30 days uses only the end day and ignores that the campaign did not start at day 0. Getting 24 days comes from subtracting the start day twice, 30 − 3 − 3 = 24, instead of once.
- (c) They are in direct proportion, because y ÷ x = 2.5 for both pairs. — Testing direct proportion means checking that y ÷ x is the same for every pair: 15 ÷ 6 = 2.5 and 25 ÷ 10 = 2.5, so the quantities are in direct proportion. Saying they are not in proportion because x + y differs uses addition, which is not the correct test for proportion. Saying they are not in proportion because y − x differs also uses the wrong test — subtraction, not division. Saying they are in proportion because x × y is 90 and 250 uses multiplication, which is the test for inverse proportion, and the two products are not even equal to each other, so this option also contradicts itself.
- (d) 7 cm — Area of a parallelogram = base × height, so height = area ÷ base = 84 ÷ 12 = 7 cm. A pupil who multiplies instead of dividing gets 84 × 12 = 1008 cm. A pupil who divides the base by the area instead of the area by the base gets 12 ÷ 84 ≈ 0.14 cm. A pupil who mistakenly halves the area first, as if this were a triangle, gets (84 ÷ 2) ÷ 12 = 3.5 cm. The correct height is 7 cm.
- (b) 5/12 — There are 36 equally likely ordered pairs. Listing the pairs where the red score is smaller than the blue score gives 15 outcomes, so the probability is 15/36 = 5/12. Choosing 1/2 comes from assuming the 36 outcomes split evenly between 'red smaller' and 'red bigger', which ignores the 6 outcomes where the two dice show the same score. Choosing 7/12 comes from including the outcomes where the two scores are equal, 15 + 6 = 21, giving 21/36 = 7/12, instead of using 'less than' strictly. Choosing 5/36 comes from counting only the outcomes where the two scores differ by exactly 1, such as (1, 2) and (2, 3), which is 5 outcomes, and missing the pairs that differ by more than 1.
- (d) About 510 of the 600 bulbs are likely to have flowered — Method: the proportion found in a random sample is used as an estimate of the proportion in the whole population, and the conclusion is stated as an estimate, never as a fact about every member. Working: 17 of the 20 bulbs dug up had flowered, so the sample proportion is 17 ÷ 20 = 0.85, and applying that proportion to the whole planting gives 0.85 × 600 = 510 bulbs. A different random sample of 20 would very probably give a slightly different figure, so 510 is an estimate. Answer: about 510 of the 600 bulbs are likely to have flowered. The distractors: saying exactly 510 have flowered takes an estimate from a sample of 20 as a count of all 600, which no sample can deliver; saying exactly 17 of the 600 have flowered reports the sample count as though it were the population count, leaving the other 580 bulbs out of the answer altogether; saying about 20 have flowered uses the size of the sample as the estimate, when 20 is the number of bulbs she dug up rather than a number that flowered.
- (d) 51 is not prime, because 51 = 3 × 17. — Check 51 for small prime factors: 51 ÷ 3 = 17, and both 3 and 17 are themselves prime, so 51 = 3 × 17 and 51 is not a prime number — it has factors other than 1 and itself. Checking only 2, 3 and 5 and concluding wrongly that none of them divide 51 misses that 3 does divide it exactly, so the claim that 51 is prime because it avoids 2, 3 and 5 is false. Assuming any odd number must be prime ignores that 51 = 3 × 17 is a counterexample — plenty of odd numbers are not prime. Misreading 51 as the even number 52 leads to the false claim that it is divisible by 2; 51 itself is odd, and 2 is not one of its factors. So 51 is not prime, because 51 = 3 × 17.
- (a) 4n + 1 — Method: find the increase in cost per hour, then find the constant by adjusting the 1-hour cost. Working: the cost goes up by £4 for each extra hour (9 − 5 = 4), so the coefficient of n is 4. The constant is the 1-hour cost minus the common difference: 5 − 4 = 1. Answer: the nth term is 4n + 1. 4n + 5 comes from using the 1-hour cost, 5, as the constant without subtracting the common difference. 4n − 3 comes from a slip in working out the constant, subtracting the common difference twice (5 − 4 − 4 = −3) instead of once. n + 4 comes from swapping the hourly increase and the constant.
- (b) 12 — Method: in an equation of direct proportion the value of x is substituted and multiplied by the constant. Working: y = 3x with x = 4 gives y = 3 × 4 = 12. Answer: 12. The distractors: 7 comes from adding the 3 and the 4 instead of multiplying them, reading 3x as 3 + x; 34 comes from writing the 3 and the 4 side by side, treating 3x as the digits of a two-digit number rather than as a product; 1 comes from working out 4 − 3, which turns the constant into an amount to be taken away.
- (c) 1/2 — Method: cos 60° comes from half of an equilateral triangle. Cut an equilateral triangle of side 2 down its middle: each half is right-angled, with hypotenuse 2, base 1 and height √3. Working: cosine is the adjacent side over the hypotenuse, the side alongside the 60° angle is the base of length 1, and the hypotenuse is 2, so cos 60° = 1 ÷ 2. Answer: cos 60° = 1/2. A candidate who assumes the cosine falls steadily from cos 0° = 1 to cos 90° = 0 puts 60° two thirds of the way along and writes 1/3; the cosine does not change at a constant rate. Reading the start of the cosine row gives cos 0° = 1, and reading its end gives cos 90° = 0.
- (a) 1/6 — Method: for equally likely outcomes, write the number of favourable outcomes over the total number of outcomes. Working: the dice has one face showing 6, and there are 6 equally likely faces in total, so the probability is 1 over 6. Answer: 1/6, which is close to the left-hand end of the 0 to 1 scale because the outcome is unlikely. The distractors: 5/6 comes from giving the probability of not rolling a 6; 1/2 comes from treating 'a 6' and 'not a 6' as two equally likely outcomes; 1/5 comes from writing the one favourable face over the 5 faces that are not a 6 instead of over all 6 faces.
- (c) 19 — Without any restriction there would be 5 × 4 = 20 different sandwiches. The restriction removes exactly one combination, cheese and mustard on gluten-free bread, so subtract 1: 20 − 1 = 19. 20 comes from ignoring the restriction completely. 15 comes from removing the gluten-free bread altogether, as if none of the fillings were available on it, 5 × 3 = 15. 16 comes from removing the cheese and mustard filling completely, as if it were not available on any bread, 4 × 4 = 16.
- (d) 8(7x − 3) — Method: find the highest common factor of the two terms, write it in front of a bracket and divide each term by it. Working: 56 = 8 × 7 and 24 = 8 × 3, so the highest common factor is 8; dividing gives 56x ÷ 8 = 7x and 24 ÷ 8 = 3, and the subtraction sign stays between them. Answer: 8(7x − 3), which multiplies back out to 56x − 24. The distractors: 8(7x + 3) comes from dropping the minus sign of −24 while dividing; 8(56x − 3) comes from dividing only the number term by 8 and leaving 56x untouched inside the bracket; 8(7x − 16) comes from subtracting 8 from 24 instead of dividing 24 by 8.
- (b) Car A, 50 km/h — Method: speed = distance ÷ time for each car, then compare. Working: Car A = 150 ÷ 3 = 50 km/h. Car B = 180 ÷ 4 = 45 km/h. Since 50 > 45, Car A is faster, travelling at 50 km/h. Wrong options: Car B, 45 km/h correctly finds Car B's speed but wrongly names the slower car as faster; Car A, 45 km/h picks the correct car but uses Car B's speed by mistake; Car B, 50 km/h picks the wrong car but uses Car A's correct speed value.
- (b) 6 — Method: count the corner points (vertices) of the shape directly. Working: a triangular prism has two triangular ends, each with 3 corners, and no other corners elsewhere on the shape, giving 3 + 3 = 6 vertices. Options: 5 comes from counting the faces of the prism (2 triangular + 3 rectangular = 5) instead of the vertices; 8 comes from confusing the prism with a cube, which has 8 vertices; 9 comes from counting the edges of the prism (3 on each triangular end, plus 3 connecting them, giving 9) instead of the vertices. Answer: 6.
- (c) 150 — Since 90 students represent 3 of the 5 equal parts, one part is 90 ÷ 3 = 30, and the whole year group is five parts: 30 × 5 = 150. Applying the fraction forwards to 90 instead of reversing it, 90 × 3/5 = 54, treats the given number as the whole rather than as three fifths of it. Finding one part correctly as 30 but forgetting to scale up to the whole year group leaves 30 as the final answer. Treating 90 as the whole year group and adding on 2/5 of 90 for the students who do not walk, 90 + (90 × 2/5) = 126, applies the missing fraction to the wrong base amount.
- (a) 5 — The symbol ≤ means n can equal 5 or any number less than 5, so 5 is included and is the largest integer value. A candidate who treats the inequality as strict, as if it were n < 5, answers 4. A candidate who confuses ≤ with ≥ and looks for a value just above the boundary answers 6. A candidate who makes a sign error and reads the inequality as n ≤ −5 answers −5.
- (d) 7/5 — The number of unbroken crayons is 60 − 25 = 35. The comparison is with the broken crayons, so the broken crayons are the denominator: 35/25. Both parts divide by 5: 35 ÷ 5 = 7 and 25 ÷ 5 = 5. The fraction is 7/5, which is greater than 1 because there are more unbroken crayons than broken ones.
- (a) 42.5 ≤ t < 47.5 — Rounding to the nearest 5 minutes means the actual time can be up to half of 5 minutes, 2.5 minutes, below or above 45 before it would round to a different multiple of 5. The lower bound is 45 − 2.5 = 42.5 and the upper bound is 45 + 2.5 = 47.5. A time of exactly 47.5 minutes would round up to 50, not 45, so 47.5 is excluded while 42.5 does still round to 45. Writing 42.5 ≤ t ≤ 47.5 wrongly includes 47.5. Writing 40 ≤ t < 50 uses a whole rounding unit, 5, either side instead of half of it. Writing 44.5 ≤ t < 45.5 treats the rounding unit as 1 minute instead of 5 minutes.
- (d) 5 — The gradient equals the amount gained divided by the time taken: 15 ÷ 3 = 5 litres per minute.
How the 20 questions are shared out
- Number — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Algebra — 4 questions (20% of the qualification)
- Ratio, proportion and rates of change — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Geometry and measures — 3 questions (15% of the qualification)
- Probability — 2 questions (7.5% of the qualification)
- Statistics — 1 question (7.5% of the qualification)
Where an area has fewer printable questions than its share, the shortfall is filled from the other areas. These are original questions, not past papers.