Sample paper · GCSE Foundation · grades 1–5
GCSE Foundation sample Paper 2 (calculator)
The real Paper 2 is 1.5 hour 30 minutes and 80 marks, calculator, and all three papers carry equal weight. This sample is 20 original questions in the same content proportions as the Foundation qualification — number 25%, algebra 20%, ratio, proportion and rates of change 25%, geometry and measures 15%, probability 7.5%, statistics 7.5% — with a calculator allowed. AO1 / AO2 / AO3 at this tier: 50% / 25% / 25%.
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GCSE Foundation sample Paper 2 (calculator)
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- 1.Write these decimals in order, starting with the smallest: 0.6, 0.55, 0.601, 0.5, 0.56
- 2.Solve the inequality 9 − 2x ≥ 1.
- 3.Write 3 hours 45 minutes as a decimal number of hours.
- 4.Write down which quadrant contains the point (−3, 5) when plotted on a coordinate grid.
- 5.Spinner A is numbered 1 to 3 and Spinner B is numbered 1 to 5. Both spinners are spun once, and every outcome is listed as a pair, one number from each spinner. Work out how many equally likely outcomes there are in total.
- 6.A dual bar chart shows the number of hours of rain recorded in Leeds and in Bristol on each of four days. Leeds: Monday 3 hours, Tuesday 5 hours, Wednesday 2 hours, Thursday 4 hours. Bristol: Monday 4 hours, Tuesday 4 hours, Wednesday 6 hours, Thursday 2 hours. Work out the greatest amount, in hours, by which Bristol's rainfall exceeded Leeds's rainfall on a single day.
- 7.A gardener has 42 tulip bulbs and 56 daffodil bulbs. She plants them in rows, with every row containing the same number of tulip bulbs and the same number of daffodil bulbs, and no bulbs left over. Work out the greatest number of rows she can plant.
- 8.The formula for converting a distance in miles, m, to kilometres, k, is k = 8m ÷ 5. Work out k when m = 10.
- 9.A metal alloy is made from copper and tin in the ratio 7:3. Work out the mass of tin in 250 g of the alloy.
- 10.A cylindrical water tank has a solid hemispherical dome on top, both with radius 2 m. Work out the volume of the hemispherical dome alone. Use π = 3.14 and give your answer correct to 3 decimal places.
- 11.A café offers 3 types of sandwich, cheese, ham and egg, and 4 types of drink, tea, coffee, juice and water. A customer chooses one sandwich and one drink at random. Work out the probability that the customer chooses egg and water.
- 12.Put these numbers in order, starting with the smallest: 3.2 × 10⁴, 2.9 × 10⁵, 4.1 × 10³
- 13.A pattern is made from tiles. Pattern 1 uses 4 tiles, pattern 2 uses 7 tiles, pattern 3 uses 10 tiles and pattern 4 uses 13 tiles, with each pattern using 3 more tiles than the one before. Work out an expression, in terms of n, for the number of tiles used in pattern n.
- 14.A watering can holds 4500 cm³ of water. Given that 1 litre = 1000 cm³, work out the capacity of the watering can in litres.
- 15.A fish tank is a cuboid measuring 40 cm long, 25 cm wide and 30 cm high. Water is poured in to a depth of 20 cm. Work out the volume of water in the tank, in litres.
- 16.The number of pages in a book is 240, correct to the nearest 10 pages. Write down the error interval for the actual number of pages, n.
- 17.Grace has t books. Noah has 1 book fewer than Grace. Write down an expression for the number of books Noah has.
- 18.Isla says that the ratio 4:6 is equivalent to the ratio 6:9. Is she correct? Give a reason for your answer.
- 19.Work out 3 × (−2)² − 5
- 20.A charity receives £360 in donations in January and £480 in donations in February. Write the amount received in January as a fraction of the amount received in February, giving your answer in its simplest form.
Answer key
- (a) 0.5, 0.55, 0.56, 0.6, 0.601 — Compare the decimals by giving them all the same number of decimal places first: 0.600, 0.550, 0.601, 0.500, 0.560. Ordering these from smallest to largest gives 0.500, 0.550, 0.560, 0.600, 0.601, which is 0.5, 0.55, 0.56, 0.6, 0.601. Comparing the digits as though they were whole numbers, reading 0.601 as "601" and 0.5 as "5", without padding to the same number of decimal places, gives the wrong order 0.5, 0.6, 0.55, 0.56, 0.601, because it ignores the place value of each digit. Ordering largest to smallest instead of smallest to largest, as the question asks, gives 0.601, 0.6, 0.56, 0.55, 0.5. Misreading the close values 0.55 and 0.56 and swapping them gives 0.5, 0.56, 0.55, 0.6, 0.601. So the correct order, smallest to largest, is 0.5, 0.55, 0.56, 0.6, 0.601.
- (c) x ≤ 4 — Subtract 9 from both sides: −2x ≥ 1 − 9 = −8. Divide both sides by −2, flipping the inequality: x ≤ 4. A candidate who divides by −2 but forgets to flip the inequality gets x ≥ 4. A candidate who divides −8 by −2 but keeps a negative sign gets x ≤ −4. A candidate who miscalculates 1 − 9 as −10 gets x ≤ 5.
- (d) 3.75 — 45 minutes is 45 ÷ 60 = 0.75 of an hour, so 3 hours 45 minutes = 3.75 hours. Getting 3.45 comes from writing the minutes directly after the decimal point instead of converting them to a fraction of an hour. Getting 3.67 comes from misreading 45 minutes as 40 minutes and converting 40 ÷ 60 instead. Getting 4.15 comes from rounding 45 minutes up to the next whole hour and adding the remainder as if it were more minutes past that hour.
- (b) second quadrant — The point (−3, 5) has a negative x-coordinate and a positive y-coordinate, and this combination lies in the second quadrant. The first quadrant needs both coordinates positive. The third quadrant needs both coordinates negative. The fourth quadrant needs a positive x-coordinate and a negative y-coordinate.
- (d) 15 — Method: each of Spinner A's outcomes can be paired with each of Spinner B's outcomes, so the two counts are combined by multiplying, not adding. Working: Spinner A has 3 outcomes and Spinner B has 5, so there are 3 × 5 = 15 equally likely outcomes in total. Answer: 15. Watch out: adding the two counts, 3 + 5 = 8, undercounts drastically — every one of Spinner A's 3 outcomes pairs with all 5 of Spinner B's outcomes, not just one each. Writing down 3 counts Spinner A alone and leaves Spinner B out completely. And writing down 25 comes from squaring Spinner B's own outcome count, 5 × 5, and forgetting Spinner A altogether.
- (b) 4 — The difference, Bristol minus Leeds, on each day is: Monday 4 − 3 = 1, Tuesday 4 − 5 = −1, Wednesday 6 − 2 = 4, Thursday 2 − 4 = −2. The greatest amount by which Bristol exceeded Leeds is 4 hours, on Wednesday. Choosing 1 takes Monday's smaller positive difference instead of the greatest one. Choosing 2 takes the size of Thursday's difference, but that is the amount by which Leeds exceeded Bristol, the opposite direction to the one asked for. Choosing 6 takes Bristol's raw figure on Wednesday without subtracting Leeds's 2 hours first.
- (b) 14 — Method: the greatest number of identical rows is the highest common factor of the two bulb totals, found by taking every prime factor the two totals share. Working: 42 = 2 × 3 × 7 and 56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7, so the prime factors common to both are 2 and 7, giving a highest common factor of 2 × 7 = 14. 2 comes from taking only the common factor 2 and forgetting the common factor 7. 7 comes from taking only the common factor 7 and forgetting the common factor 2. 168 is the lowest common multiple of 42 and 56, not their highest common factor. Answer: 14.
- (a) 16 — k = 8m ÷ 5 = (8 × 10) ÷ 5 = 80 ÷ 5 = 16. A candidate who multiplies 8 by 10 but forgets to divide by 5 gets 80. A candidate who divides 10 by 8 and multiplies by 5, using the fraction upside down, gets 10 × 5 ÷ 8 = 6.25. A candidate who adds instead of substituting into the formula gets 8 + 10 = 18.
- (b) 75 g — Method: split the total mass into the number of parts shown by the ratio, then find the mass of tin. Working: the ratio 7:3 has 7 + 3 = 10 parts, so one part is 250 ÷ 10 = 25 g, and the mass of tin is 3 × 25 = 75 g. So the alloy contains 75 g of tin. Distractor 175 g is the mass of copper, not tin. Distractor 125 g comes from splitting the alloy into two equal halves, ignoring the ratio. Distractor 25 g is the value of one part, found correctly but never multiplied by 3.
- (b) 16.747 m³ — Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr³, so a hemisphere is half that: (2/3)πr³. Substitute r = 2: (2/3) × 3.14 × 2³ = (2/3) × 3.14 × 8 = (2/3) × 25.12 = 16.7467 m³, which rounds to 16.747 m³.
- (d) 1/12 — Method: list the full possibility space of sandwich-and-drink pairs, then divide the one matching pair by the size of the whole space. Working: there are 3 × 4 = 12 equally likely sandwich-and-drink pairs, and exactly one of them is egg and water. Answer: 1/12. Watch out: writing down 1/7 comes from adding the two counts, 3 + 4 = 7, instead of multiplying them to build the possibility space. Writing down 1/3 uses only the chance of choosing egg out of 3 sandwiches and ignores the drink altogether. And writing down 1/4 uses only the chance of choosing water out of 4 drinks and ignores the sandwich altogether.
- (c) 4.1 × 10³, 3.2 × 10⁴, 2.9 × 10⁵ — The exponent decides the size first: 10³ is smaller than 10⁴, which is smaller than 10⁵, so the order is 4.1 × 10³, then 3.2 × 10⁴, then 2.9 × 10⁵. Reversing the whole list gives largest to smallest instead of smallest to largest. Comparing 3.2 × 10⁴ and 4.1 × 10³ by their coefficients alone, 3.2 against 4.1, and swapping them ignores that 10⁴ is bigger than 10³ regardless of the coefficient. Comparing 2.9 × 10⁵ and 3.2 × 10⁴ by their coefficients alone and swapping them makes the same mistake at the top of the list.
- (b) 3n + 1 — Method: find how many more tiles each pattern uses, then find the constant by adjusting pattern 1's total. Working: each pattern uses 3 more tiles than the last, so the coefficient of n is 3. The constant is pattern 1's total minus the common difference: 4 − 3 = 1. Answer: the nth term is 3n + 1. 3n + 4 comes from using pattern 1's total, 4, as the constant without subtracting the common difference. 3n − 2 comes from a slip in working out the constant, subtracting the common difference twice (4 − 3 − 3 = −2) instead of once. n + 3 comes from swapping the common difference and the constant.
- (c) 4.5 litres — Method: a litre is larger than a cm³, so changing cm³ into litres means dividing by the conversion factor 1000. Working: 4500 ÷ 1000 = 4.5. Answer: 4.5 litres. The distractors: 45 litres comes from dividing by 100; 450 litres comes from dividing by 10; 0.45 litres comes from dividing by 10 000.
- (a) 20 litres — Volume of water = length × width × depth of water = 40 × 25 × 20 = 20 000 cm³. Since 1000 cm³ = 1 litre, divide by 1000: 20 000 ÷ 1000 = 20 litres. A pupil who uses the full height of the tank, 30 cm, instead of the water depth, 20 cm, gets 40 × 25 × 30 = 30 000 cm³ = 30 litres. A pupil who forgets to convert cm³ to litres at all gives 20 000 litres. A pupil who divides by 1000 twice by mistake gets 20 000 ÷ 1000 ÷ 1000 = 0.02 litres. The correct volume of water is 20 litres.
- (b) 235 ≤ n < 245 — Method: the error interval stretches half the rounding unit either side of the rounded value, with the upper bound excluded because it would round up to the next value. Working: half of 10 is 5, so the interval runs from 240 − 5 to 240 + 5. Answer: 235 ≤ n < 245. (230 ≤ n < 250 comes from using the whole rounding unit, 10, either side instead of half of it. 235 ≤ n ≤ 245 comes from including the upper bound with ≤ instead of excluding it with <. 239.5 ≤ n < 240.5 comes from rounding to the nearest whole number instead of the nearest 10, so half of 1 is used in place of half of 10.)
- (b) t − 1 — Method: "fewer than" means a subtraction, and the amount taken away is taken away from the quantity being compared with. Working: Grace has t books and Noah has one book fewer, so Noah has t with 1 taken off, written t − 1. Answer: t − 1. The distractors: t + 1 comes from reading "fewer" as "more" and adding instead of subtracting; 1 − t comes from writing the subtraction the wrong way round, taking Grace's books from the 1 rather than the 1 from Grace's books; t comes from giving the number of books Grace has, which is not the person the question asks about.
- (d) Yes, because 4 × 9 = 6 × 6 — Method: two ratios are equal when their cross-products are equal, so multiply the first part of each ratio by the second part of the other. Working: 4 × 9 = 36 and 6 × 6 = 36; the two products match, so the ratios are equal, and simplifying both to 2:3 shows the same thing. Answer: yes, because 4 × 9 = 6 × 6. The distractors: the reason that the number 6 appears in both ratios reaches the right verdict from a surface match, since a figure shared by two ratios says nothing about equivalence — 4:6 and 6:5 share a 6 and are not equal; the reason built on 9 − 6 and 6 − 4 compares the differences inside each ratio, 3 against 2, which is additive thinking and ends at a verdict of no; the reason built on 4 × 6 and 6 × 9 multiplies the two parts of each ratio together instead of across the pair, giving 24 against 54 and again a verdict of no.
- (a) 7 — Method: BIDMAS deals with the index first, then the multiplication, then the subtraction. Working: (−2)² = (−2) × (−2) = 4, then 3 × 4 = 12, and finally 12 − 5 = 7. Answer: 7. The distractors: −17 comes from squaring only the 2 and keeping the minus sign, giving 3 × (−4) = −12 and then −12 − 5 = −17; 31 comes from multiplying before applying the index, giving (3 × (−2))² = (−6)² = 36 and then 36 − 5 = 31; −3 comes from carrying out the subtraction before the multiplication, giving 3 × (4 − 5) = 3 × (−1) = −3.
- (a) 3/4 — Write January's total over February's total: 360/480. Both numbers share a factor of 120, so dividing top and bottom by 120 gives 3/4. Choosing 4/3 comes from writing February's amount over January's amount, the wrong way round. Choosing 1/4 comes from finding the difference between the two months (480 − 360 = 120) and writing it over February's amount, instead of using January's amount. Choosing 3/7 comes from writing January's amount over the total received across both months (360 out of 840), instead of over February's amount alone.
How the 20 questions are shared out
- Number — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Algebra — 4 questions (20% of the qualification)
- Ratio, proportion and rates of change — 5 questions (25% of the qualification)
- Geometry and measures — 3 questions (15% of the qualification)
- Probability — 2 questions (7.5% of the qualification)
- Statistics — 1 question (7.5% of the qualification)
Where an area has fewer printable questions than its share, the shortfall is filled from the other areas. These are original questions, not past papers.