Sample paper · GCSE Higher · grades 4–9
GCSE Higher sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
The real Paper 1 is 1.5 hour 30 minutes and 80 marks, non-calculator, and all three papers carry equal weight. This sample is 20 original questions in the same content proportions as the Higher qualification — number 15%, algebra 30%, ratio, proportion and rates of change 20%, geometry and measures 20%, probability 7.5%, statistics 7.5% — with no calculator-only items. AO1 / AO2 / AO3 at this tier: 40% / 30% / 30%.
Non-calculatorGCSE Higher
GCSE Higher sample Paper 1 (non-calculator)
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- 1.Write 0.005 in standard form.
- 2.Write down the gradient of the line with equation y = −x + 3.y = −x + 3
- 3.To make a shade of green paint, the amount of yellow paint used is always 0.75 times the amount of blue paint used. Write the amount of blue paint as a fraction of the amount of yellow paint, in its simplest form.
- 4.Triangle ABC has a right angle at B, hypotenuse AC = 13 cm and AB = 5 cm. Triangle DEF has a right angle at E, hypotenuse DF = 13 cm and DE = 5 cm. Which condition proves the two triangles are congruent?
- 5.In a certain town, P(rain on Monday) = 0.3. If it rains on Monday, the probability that it also rains on Tuesday is 0.6. If it does not rain on Monday, the probability that it rains on Tuesday is 0.25. Work out the probability that it rains on Tuesday.
- 6.A gym draws a histogram of the times, t minutes, that its members spend on one machine. The bar for 0 ≤ t < 10 has a frequency density of 1.8 per minute, the bar for 10 ≤ t < 25 has a frequency density of 3.2 per minute, and the bar for 25 ≤ t < 55 has a frequency density of 0.9 per minute. Members who spend 10 minutes or more on the machine pay an extra charge. Work out the number of members who pay the extra charge.
- 7.A carpenter has a plank of wood 4.8 m long. She cuts off 3 pieces, each 0.9 m long, to make shelves. Work out the length of wood remaining.
- 8.Work out the value of n² − n when n = −3
- 9.It takes 2 identical pumps 10 hours to empty a flooded basement. Working at the same rate, work out how many hours 5 of these pumps would take to empty the same basement.
- 10.Triangle ABC is right-angled at B. Triangle DEF is right-angled at E. AB = DE = 6 cm and AC = DF = 10 cm (AC and DF are the hypotenuses of their triangles). A student says this is not enough information to prove the triangles are congruent, because only two sides are given. Which reason shows the student is wrong?
- 11.Spinner E has 4 equal sections, numbered 1 to 4. Spinner F has 6 equal sections, numbered 1 to 6. Both spinners are spun once. Work out the probability of getting at least one 3.
- 12.Three-digit numbers are made using the digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 and 9. No digit may be used twice in the same number. Work out how many of these three-digit numbers are odd.
- 13.The tangent to a curve at the point (6, 1) has gradient −3. Work out the y-coordinate of the point where this tangent crosses the y-axis.
- 14.A gardener mixes 300 ml of plant feed concentrate with 1.2 litres of water to make a spray. Write the ratio of concentrate to water in its simplest form.
- 15.A regular polygon has an exterior angle of 45°. Work out the number of sides of the polygon.
- 16.A pattern is made from tiles. Pattern 1 uses 4 tiles, pattern 2 uses 7 tiles, pattern 3 uses 10 tiles and pattern 4 uses 13 tiles, with each pattern using 3 more tiles than the one before. Work out an expression, in terms of n, for the number of tiles used in pattern n.
- 17.Water flows into a tank at a constant rate. After 8 minutes the tank holds 200 litres. Write the ratio of time in minutes to volume in litres, in its simplest form.
- 18.OABC is a parallelogram, with OA = a and OC = c. M is the midpoint of AB. Express the vector OM in terms of a and c.
- 19.A proof that the product of two consecutive even numbers is always a multiple of 8 begins: Let the two consecutive even numbers be 2n and 2n + 2, so their product is 2n(2n + 2) = 4n(n + 1). Which line correctly completes the proof?
- 20.A geometric sequence has first term 3 and common ratio 2. Work out the 5th term of the sequence.
Answer key
- (c) 5 × 10⁻³ — Method: in standard form the coefficient must be at least 1 and less than 10, and for a number smaller than 1 the index is negative and counts the places the decimal point moves to the right. Working: the only significant digit is 5, so the coefficient is 5; moving the decimal point in 0.005 three places to the right gives 5, so the index is −3. Answer: 5 × 10⁻³. The distractors: 0.5 × 10⁻² is the same value written the wrong way, because 0.5 is smaller than 1 and so is not an allowed coefficient; 5 × 10⁻² comes from counting the two zeros after the decimal point instead of the three places the point moves; 5 × 10³ comes from taking the index as positive, which describes a number in the thousands rather than one smaller than 1.
- (b) −1 — Method: in the form y = mx + c the gradient m is the number multiplying x, and an x term written with no number in front of it has a coefficient of 1. Working: y = −x + 3 is the same equation as y = (−1)x + 3, so comparing it with y = mx + c gives m = −1 and c = 3. Answer: −1. The distractors: 1 comes from taking the coefficient as 1 and leaving the minus sign out of the answer; 3 comes from reading the constant as the gradient, confusing m with c; −3 comes from moving the minus sign across to the constant term and then reading the gradient off that term instead of the x term.
- (d) 4/3 — The amount of yellow paint is 0.75 times the amount of blue paint. As a fraction, 0.75 = 3/4, so yellow = 3/4 of blue. To write blue as a fraction of yellow, use the reciprocal: flip 3/4 to get 4/3. 3/4 comes from keeping the original fraction without inverting it. 1/4 comes from computing 1 − 3/4 = 1/4, which is not how a fraction reverses. 40/3 comes from converting 0.75 to a fraction as 75/1000 = 3/40 (misplacing the decimal point), then inverting that.
- (b) RHS - right angle, hypotenuse and one side equal — A right angle, the hypotenuse (13 cm) and one other side (5 cm) are equal in both triangles, so this is RHS. SAS would need the equal angle to be the one INCLUDED between the two equal sides, but the right angle at B is not between AB and the hypotenuse AC — it is opposite the hypotenuse instead, so SAS does not apply directly here. SSS needs all three sides, but only two sides are stated. ASA needs two angles, but only one angle (the right angle) is given.
- (b) 0.355 — Method: use the law of total probability across the two Monday branches: P(rain Tue) = P(rain Mon) × P(rain Tue | rain Mon) + P(no rain Mon) × P(rain Tue | no rain Mon). Working: P(no rain Mon) = 1 − 0.3 = 0.7. P(rain Tue) = (0.3 × 0.6) + (0.7 × 0.25) = 0.18 + 0.175 = 0.355. Answer: 0.355. Watch out: using only the rain-Monday branch (0.3 × 0.6) or only the no-rain-Monday branch (0.7 × 0.25) accounts for just one of the two ways Tuesday can turn out rainy — both branches must be added. And swapping which weekday-probability multiplies which branch (0.7 with the rain branch, 0.3 with the no-rain branch) uses the right numbers on the wrong branches.
- (c) 75 — Method: the number in a class is the area of its bar, frequency density × class width, so work out the frequency of each class that lies at or above 10 minutes and add them. Working: the class 10 ≤ t < 25 is 15 minutes wide with a frequency density of 3.2, giving 3.2 × 15 = 48 members; the class 25 ≤ t < 55 is 30 minutes wide with a frequency density of 0.9, giving 0.9 × 30 = 27 members; the total charged is 48 + 27 = 75. Answer: 75 members pay the extra charge. The distractors: 4.1 comes from adding the two frequency densities, 3.2 + 0.9, as though each height were a count; 93 comes from including the class 0 ≤ t < 10 as well, 1.8 × 10 = 18 added to 48 and 27, which charges every member; 27 comes from using only the class 25 ≤ t < 55 and forgetting that 10 ≤ t < 25 is also at or above 10 minutes.
- (b) 2.1 m — The three pieces use 3 × 0.9 = 2.7 m of wood. Remaining wood = 4.8 − 2.7 = 2.1 m. A candidate who miscounts and only subtracts 2 pieces instead of 3 gets 4.8 − 1.8 = 3.0 m. A candidate who adds instead of subtracting gets 4.8 + 2.7 = 7.5 m. A candidate who gives the length used instead of the length remaining gets 2.7 m.
- (d) 12 — Method: substitute the value into both terms, remembering that subtracting a negative number has the same effect as adding the matching positive number. Working: n² = (−3) × (−3) = 9, and subtracting n means subtracting −3, which adds 3, so the calculation is 9 + 3 = 12. Answer: 12. The distractors: 6 comes from subtracting 3 rather than subtracting −3, giving 9 − 3; −6 comes from squaring −3 as −9 while still adding the 3, giving −9 + 3; −3 comes from reading n² as 2n, giving 2 × (−3) = −6 and then −6 + 3.
- (a) 4 hours — This is inverse proportion: more pumps take less time. Multiply the original numbers to find the total pump-hours needed: 2 × 10 = 20 pump-hours. Divide by the new number of pumps: 20 ÷ 5 = 4 hours. Working out 10 × 5 ÷ 2 = 25 hours treats it as direct proportion, as if more pumps needed more time. Stopping at 20 gives the total pump-hours, not the number of hours. Working out 10 − (5 − 2) = 7 hours subtracts the extra number of pumps straight from the number of hours, treating pumps and hours as the same kind of quantity. 5 pumps take 4 hours.
- (c) RHS applies: the right angle, hypotenuse and one matching side are all equal — Both triangles are right-angled, and the hypotenuses (AC and DF) are equal, and one further pair of matching sides (AB and DE) are equal. This matches the Right angle-Hypotenuse-Side condition, which needs only these three facts, not a third side.
- (a) 3/8 — There are 4 × 6 = 24 equally likely outcomes. The outcomes with no 3 at all have Spinner E showing 1, 2 or 4 and Spinner F showing 1, 2, 4, 5 or 6, giving 3 × 5 = 15 outcomes. So the outcomes with at least one 3 are 24 − 15 = 9, and the probability is 9/24 = 3/8. Choosing 5/12 comes from adding the two individual probabilities of a 3, 1/4 + 1/6, which counts the outcome where both spinners show 3 twice over. Choosing 1/4 comes from only counting the case where Spinner E shows 3, and forgetting the outcomes where Spinner F shows 3 instead. Choosing 5/8 comes from working out the probability of getting no 3 at all, 15/24 = 5/8, and giving that as the final answer instead of subtracting it from 1.
- (a) 40 — Method: a number is odd exactly when its units digit is odd, so the restricted position is filled first and the two free positions are then filled from the digits that are left, multiplying the number of choices at each stage. Working: of the six digits only 3 and 9 are odd, so there are 2 choices for the units digit; once that digit has been used, 5 digits remain for the hundreds position and then 4 remain for the tens position, so the count is 2 × 5 × 4 = 40. Answer: 40. The distractors: 120 comes from ignoring the word odd altogether and counting every three-digit number that can be made from the six digits, 6 × 5 × 4; 60 comes from filling the hundreds and tens positions first, 6 then 5, and only then allowing 2 odd digits for the units position, which overcounts because one of 3 and 9 may already have been used, giving 6 × 5 × 2; 72 comes from restricting the units digit to 3 or 9 correctly but overlooking the condition that no digit may be used twice, so all six digits are still counted as available for each of the other two positions, giving 2 × 6 × 6.
- (b) 19 — A line through (x₁, y₁) with gradient m has equation y − y₁ = m(x − x₁). Substituting (6, 1) and m = −3: y − 1 = −3(x − 6), so y = −3x + 18 + 1, which simplifies to y = −3x + 19; at x = 0 this gives 19. Making a sign error when distributing, writing −3(x − 6) as −3x − 18 instead of −3x + 18, gives the wrong line y = −3x − 17, so −17 at x = 0. Forgetting to add the y₁ = 1 at the end, using y = −3(x − 6) alone, gives 18 at x = 0. Substituting the y-coordinate into the gradient term instead of using x, working out 1 + (−3 × 1), gives −2.
- (c) 1 : 4 — Convert to the same unit: 1.2 litres = 1200 ml, since 1 litre = 1000 ml. This gives the ratio 300 : 1200. Divide both parts by their highest common factor, 300, to get 1 : 4. Giving 3 : 12 divides by 100 only, which is a common factor but not the highest one. Giving 1 : 1.2 has not converted 1.2 litres into millilitres, so the two parts are not in the same unit. Giving 4 : 1 swaps the order, comparing water to concentrate instead of concentrate to water.
- (c) 8 — Method: the exterior angles of a polygon add up to 360°, so divide 360° by the size of one exterior angle. Working: 360 ÷ 45 = 8. Answer: 8 sides. A candidate who divides into a half turn instead of a full turn, working out 180 ÷ 45, gets 4. A candidate who reads off the given exterior angle as if it were the number of sides gets 45. A candidate who subtracts instead of dividing, working out 360 − 45, gets 315.
- (b) 3n + 1 — Method: find how many more tiles each pattern uses, then find the constant by adjusting pattern 1's total. Working: each pattern uses 3 more tiles than the last, so the coefficient of n is 3. The constant is pattern 1's total minus the common difference: 4 − 3 = 1. Answer: the nth term is 3n + 1. 3n + 4 comes from using pattern 1's total, 4, as the constant without subtracting the common difference. 3n − 2 comes from a slip in working out the constant, subtracting the common difference twice (4 − 3 − 3 = −2) instead of once. n + 3 comes from swapping the common difference and the constant.
- (b) 1:25 — Write the ratio time : volume using the numbers in the question: 8 : 200. Divide both parts by their highest common factor, 8, to give 1 : 25. (25:1 comes from writing the ratio the wrong way round, volume : time. 8:25 comes from dividing only the volume by 8 and leaving the time unchanged. 25:8 is that same mistake written the wrong way round.)
- (c) a + (1/2)c — Method: OABC is a parallelogram, so OB = OA + AB, and since AB is equal and parallel to OC, AB = c; this gives OB = a + c. M is the midpoint of AB, so AM = (1/2)AB = (1/2)c. Working: OM = OA + AM = a + (1/2)c. Answer: OM = a + (1/2)c. Adding the whole of AB instead of half of it gives a + c, which is OB, not OM; halving the whole diagonal OB instead of just AB gives (1/2)a + (1/2)c, the midpoint of OB rather than of AB; and flipping the sign on the c-term gives a − (1/2)c, which points back the wrong way along AB. Halve only the side you are told to halve, and check the sign before you commit to an answer.
- (d) n and n + 1 are consecutive integers, so one of them must be even; this makes n(n + 1) even, so 4n(n + 1) is 4 × an even number, which is a multiple of 8. — The proof needs a reason why n(n + 1) is even, not just an assertion. n and n + 1 are consecutive integers, so exactly one of them is even; multiplying by that even number keeps n(n + 1) even, so 4n(n + 1) = 4 × (an even number), and 4 × an even number always has a further factor of 2 hidden inside it, making the whole product a multiple of 8. The option 'is a multiple of 4, and because n and n + 1 are consecutive integers, it must be a multiple of 8' asserts the multiple-of-8 conclusion directly from 'multiple of 4' and 'consecutive integers' without ever showing that n(n + 1) itself is even — the missing step is exactly what earns the mark. The option '4n is always a multiple of 4 ... which means it is a multiple of 8' mistakes 4n being a multiple of 4 for the whole product 4n(n + 1) being a multiple of 8; that extra factor of 2 only comes from n(n + 1) being even, not from 4n alone. The option that expands to 4n² + 4n and calls it 'clearly a multiple of 8' never checks for a factor of 2 beyond the 4 already there — the word 'clearly' is standing in for a missing argument.
- (d) 48 — Each term is found by multiplying the previous term by the common ratio, 2: 3, 6, 12, 24, 48 — the 5th term is 48. A candidate who mistakes the common ratio for a common difference, and adds 2 four times, would reach 3+4×2=11. A candidate who works out the multiplier 2⁴=16 but forgets to multiply it by the first term would give 16. A candidate who multiplies one time too many (finding the 6th term instead of the 5th) would reach 3×2⁵=96.
How the 20 questions are shared out
- Number — 3 questions (15% of the qualification)
- Algebra — 6 questions (30% of the qualification)
- Ratio, proportion and rates of change — 4 questions (20% of the qualification)
- Geometry and measures — 4 questions (20% of the qualification)
- Probability — 2 questions (7.5% of the qualification)
- Statistics — 1 question (7.5% of the qualification)
Where an area has fewer printable questions than its share, the shortfall is filled from the other areas. These are original questions, not past papers.