Printable · GCSE Higher · ages 14-16
Probability worksheet — GCSE Higher
Fifteen questions across the probability statements at Higher tier. Choose the non-calculator filter to rehearse Paper 1, which counts for a third of the marks.
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Answer key: Probability worksheet — GCSE Higher
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- (a) 1/10 — There are 4 × 5 = 20 equally likely outcomes in total. The pairs whose product is 12 are Spinner A showing 3 with Spinner B showing 4, and Spinner A showing 4 with Spinner B showing 3, which is 2 outcomes, giving a probability of 2/20 = 1/10. Choosing 1/20 comes from finding only one of the two pairs, (3, 4), and missing (4, 3) as a separate outcome. Choosing 1/8 comes from using 16 as the total number of outcomes, 4 × 4, forgetting that Spinner B has 5 sections rather than 4. Choosing 1/5 comes from listing the factor pairs of 12 as 2 × 6 and 3 × 4 and counting each one in both orders, (2, 6), (6, 2), (3, 4) and (4, 3), giving 4 outcomes out of 20 without checking that neither spinner has a 6 on it.
- (c) 9/25 — The frequency tree already shows the swim-and-cycle branch directly: 54 out of 150, which simplifies to 9/25. Adding both cycling branches together, 54 + 18 = 72, gives the total number of cyclists, so 72/150 = 12/25, not just those who also swim. Using the non-swimmers' cycling figure, 18, gives 18/150 = 3/25, the probability of cycling WITHOUT swimming. Using the swimmers' total of 90, before splitting by cycling, gives 90/150 = 3/5, the probability of swimming on its own.
- (a) 0.09 — Method: two independent events that must both happen are combined by multiplying their probabilities. Working: the same probability 0.3 applies to each day, so the calculation is 0.3 × 0.3. Written as fractions this is 3/10 × 3/10 = 9/100. Answer: the probability is 0.09. The distractors: 0.6 comes from adding 0.3 and 0.3 instead of multiplying them; 0.3 comes from quoting the single-day probability, as though the second day added no further condition; 0.9 comes from multiplying 3 by 3 correctly but keeping only one decimal place in the product instead of two.
- (b) (48/52) × (47/51) — Method: for two deals one after the other with nothing put back, multiply the probability of the first by the probability of the second worked out from the cards that are left. Working: 52 − 4 = 48 cards are not aces, so the first card is not an ace with probability 48/52. One card has now gone and it was not an ace, so 51 cards remain and 47 of them are not aces, giving 47/51. Answer: the probability is (48/52) × (47/51). The distractors: (48/52) × (48/52) comes from leaving the pack at 52 cards for the second deal, which is only true if the first card is replaced; (4/52) × (3/51) comes from working out the probability that both cards ARE aces instead of neither; (4/52) × (4/51) comes from the same misreading with the ace count left at 4 while the total is reduced, adjusting only half of the second fraction.
- (d) 15/64 — Method: because the first marble is put back, the second draw is made from the same 8 marbles, so the two draws are independent and their probabilities are multiplied. Working: the bag holds 8 marbles both times, so yellow first has probability 5/8 and blue second has probability 3/8. Multiplying fractions gives 5 × 3 = 15 on the top and 8 × 8 = 64 on the bottom. Answer: the probability is 15/64. The distractors: 9/64 comes from working out the probability that BOTH marbles are blue, 3/8 × 3/8, instead of one of each colour in the stated order; 15/16 comes from multiplying the numerators but adding the denominators; 5/8 comes from writing down the first draw only and never combining it with the second.
- (a) 17/32 — Because the counter is replaced, each pick is independent with P(red) = 5/8 and P(blue) = 3/8 every time. Both red has probability 5/8 × 5/8 = 25/64, and both blue has probability 3/8 × 3/8 = 9/64. 'Same colour' means either of these, so add them: 25/64 + 9/64 = 34/64 = 17/32. Giving 25/64 finds only the probability of both counters being red, leaving out both counters being blue, which also counts as the same colour. Giving 15/64 finds the probability of one red and one blue counter in just one of the two possible orders — the opposite of what was asked, and only half of it. Giving 13/28 works out the probabilities as if the counter had NOT been replaced, using 5/8 × 4/7 and 3/8 × 2/7, even though the question states it was put back.
- (a) 50 — To find the number of shots needed for an expected 12 hits, divide the number of hits wanted by the probability of a hit: 12 ÷ 0.24 = 50. Multiplying the number of hits by the probability instead of dividing gives 12 × 0.24 = 2.88, which rounds to 3 shots. Rounding 0.24 to 0.25 before dividing gives 12 ÷ 0.25 = 48. Using the probability of missing, 1 − 0.24 = 0.76, instead of the probability of hitting, gives 12 ÷ 0.76 = 15.79, which rounds to 16.
- (c) 1/36 — Method: the two dice do not affect each other, so the probability that both results happen is the product of the two separate probabilities. Working: a 1 on the red dice has probability 1/6 and a 2 on the blue dice has probability 1/6. Multiplying gives 1 × 1 = 1 on the top and 6 × 6 = 36 on the bottom. Answer: the probability is 1/36. The distractors: 1/18 comes from allowing either order, counting a 2 on the red dice with a 1 on the blue dice as well, although the stem names which dice shows which score; 1/3 comes from adding 1/6 and 1/6 instead of multiplying; 1/6 comes from giving the probability for one dice only and treating the other as making no difference.
- (b) 500 — Method: when a dice is known to be fair, the theoretical probability is the best thing to work from, and the more trials there are the closer the results tend to it. Working: for a fair dice the probability of a six is 1/6, so the expected number of sixes in 3000 rolls is 3000 × 1 ÷ 6 = 500. The class experiment gave a relative frequency of 14/60, but 60 trials is far too few to overturn a known theoretical value, and the school's 3000 rolls will tend towards 1/6 in any case. Answer: about 500 sixes. The distractors: 700 comes from using the class relative frequency instead of the theory, 3000 × 14 ÷ 60 = 700; 600 comes from splitting the difference between the two, since 1/6 is about 0.167 and 14/60 is about 0.233, whose mean is 0.2, and 3000 × 0.2 = 600; 2500 uses 5/6 instead of 1/6 and counts the rolls expected not to be a six.
- (c) 0.04 — Method: 'made by machine B and faulty' is the second branch of a tree followed after the first, so multiply the probability of machine B by the probability of a fault given machine B. Working: machine B makes 0.4 of the bolts, and 0.1 of those bolts are faulty, so the probability is 0.4 × 0.1 = 0.04. Answer: the probability is 0.04. The distractors: 0.5 comes from adding 0.4 and 0.1 instead of multiplying, treating two stages of one journey as two separate outcomes; 0.1 gives the fault rate for machine B on its own, as though every bolt in the factory came from machine B, so the 40% share is never used; 0.07 is 0.6 × 0.05 added to 0.4 × 0.1, the probability that a bolt is faulty whichever machine made it, which answers a question about all the production rather than about machine B.
- (a) 9/25 — Method: P(badminton | tennis) = n(tennis and badminton) ÷ n(tennis) — restrict to the tennis-players, then find what fraction of them also play badminton. Working: n(tennis and badminton) = 18, n(tennis) = 50, so P(badminton | tennis) = 18/50 = 9/25. Answer: 9/25. Watch out: dividing by 40 (the badminton total) finds P(tennis | badminton) instead of P(badminton | tennis) — the wrong direction. Dividing by 90 (all the members named in the question) ignores that you already know the member plays tennis. And dividing by 72 (50 + 40 − 18, the number who play at least one of the two sports) answers a question about the union, not the condition you were given.
- (c) 7/19 — Method: 'at least two black' covers two cases — all three black, and exactly two black. Work out the probability of each along a tree, add them, then use P(all three black | at least two black) = P(all three black) ÷ P(at least two black). Working: P(all three black) = 9/13 × 8/12 × 7/11 = 504/1716 = 42/143. For exactly two black, one order is black, black, white = 9/13 × 8/12 × 4/11 = 288/1716; the white sock could be drawn first, second or third, so there are 3 such orders, giving 3 × 288/1716 = 864/1716 = 72/143. P(at least two black) = 42/143 + 72/143 = 114/143. P(all three black | at least two black) = (42/143) ÷ (114/143) = 42/114 = 7/19. Answer: 7/19. Watch out: stopping at 42/143 gives the unconditioned probability that all three are black — it ignores that you already know at least two of them are. Dividing by the 'exactly two black' probability on its own gives 7/12, and forgets that the all-black outcomes are themselves part of the 'at least two black' group, so they must be inside the denominator, not left out of it. And 7/11 answers a different, easier question — the probability the THIRD sock is black given the FIRST TWO specifically are black — not 'at least two of the three, in any order, are black'.
- (d) 19/100 — It is easier to first find the probability that NEITHER component is faulty, then subtract from 1. The probability a component is not faulty is 9/10, so the probability neither is faulty is 9/10 × 9/10 = 81/100. So the probability at least one is faulty is 1 − 81/100 = 19/100. Choosing 1/5 comes from adding the two probabilities of a fault instead, 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5, which double-counts the case where both are faulty. Choosing 1/10 comes from giving the probability for just one component being faulty. Choosing 1/100 comes from squaring the probability of a fault directly, 1/10 × 1/10 = 1/100, which is actually the probability that BOTH are faulty, not at least one.
- (a) 1/6 — Method: write the results of the two dice as ordered pairs, count the pairs whose scores add to the total asked for, divide by the number of ordered pairs there are, then cancel the fraction down. Working: there are 6 × 6 = 36 equally likely ordered pairs. The pairs whose scores add to 7 are (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2) and (6, 1), which is 6 pairs, so the probability is 6/36. Dividing the top and the bottom by 6 gives 1/6. Answer: the probability is 1/6. The distractors: 7/36 comes from taking the number of favourable pairs to be 7 because 7 is the total asked for, confusing the size of a total with the number of ways of making it; 1/7 comes from using the 21 different combinations of two scores as the equally likely results, finding the 3 combinations 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4, and cancelling 3/21; 6/11 comes from counting the 6 favourable pairs correctly but dividing by the 11 possible totals from 2 to 12 rather than by the 36 pairs.
- (a) 12/25 — P(red then blue) = 4/10 × 6/10 = 24/100. P(blue then red) is the same, 6/10 × 4/10 = 24/100. Since either order counts as different colours, add them: 24/100 + 24/100 = 48/100 = 12/25. Working out only one order, red-then-blue, and forgetting blue-then-red, gives 24/100 = 6/25. Working out the probability that the two counters are the SAME colour instead — 4/10 × 4/10 + 6/10 × 6/10 = 16/100 + 36/100 = 52/100 = 13/25 — answers a different question. Using 6/9 for the second draw, as if the first counter were not replaced, gives 2 × (4/10 × 6/9) = 48/90 = 8/15.
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